Which of the following is a correct representation of peak value in an AC circuit?
A RMS value/Peak factor B RMS value*Form factor C RMS value/Form factor D RMS value*Peak factor View answer & solution Correct answer: D. RMS value*Peak factor
What is the direction of the electric field at a point?
A Along the line perpendicular to the electric field B Along the line tangent to the electric field C Electric field has no direction D Electric field has a random direction View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Along the line tangent to the electric field
What is the number of primary turns in a 200/1000V transformer if the emf per turn is 10V?
View answer & solution
How many electrons will constitute 2 Coulombs of electric charge?
A 6.24 × 10¹⁸ electrons B 12.48 × 10¹⁸ electrons C 1.602 × 10¹⁹ electrons D 3.204 × 10¹⁹ electrons View answer & solution Correct answer: B. 12.48 × 10¹⁸ electrons
How does induced emf in DC motor react to supply voltage?
A It will aid the supply voltage B It will be double the supply voltage C It will oppose the supply voltage D It will be half of the supply voltage View answer & solution Correct answer: C. It will oppose the supply voltage
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How many cycles will an AC signal make in 2 seconds if its frequency is 100Hz?
View answer & solution
What will be the current density of a metal if a current of 30A is passed through a cross-sectional area of 0.5m2?
A 7.5 A/m2 B 15 A/m2 C 60 A/m2 D 120 A/m2 View answer & solution Correct answer: C. 60 A/m2
A substance whose relative permeability is less than the permeability of free space is _____________.
A Diamagnetic B Paramagnetic C Ferromagnetic D Not a magnetic substance View answer & solution Correct answer: A. Diamagnetic
Diamagnetic substances have relative permeability _____________.
A Greater than 1 B Less than 1 C Equal to 1 D Zero View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Less than 1
What happens to the MMF when the magnetic flux decreases?
A Increases B Decreases C Remains constant D Becomes zero View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Decreases
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Can we apply Kirchhoff’s law to magnetic circuits?
A Yes B No C Depends on the circuit D Insufficient information provided View answer & solution
KCL is based on the fact that
A There is a possibility for a node to store energy B There cannot be an accumulation of charge at a node C Charge accumulation is possible at node D Charge accumulation may or may not be possible View answer & solution Correct answer: B. There cannot be an accumulation of charge at a node
Power dissipation in ideal inductor is
A Maximum B Minimum C Zero D Finite value View answer & solution
To obtain wide bandwidth, network is designed with which of the following?
A High Q factor B Low Q factor C Unity Q factor D Zero Q factor View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Low Q factor
Find V_AB if i_AB = 5 A.
A 32.76V B 35.56V C 36.12V D 34.21V View answer & solution Correct answer: D. 34.21V
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If 4 equations are required to describe a circuit by Mesh-Current method and there are n nodes, then how many branches are there in the network?
View answer & solution
In a delta-connected load, the relation between line voltage and the phase voltage is
A line voltage > phase voltage B line voltage < phase voltage C line voltage = phase voltage D line voltage > = phase voltage View answer & solution Correct answer: C. line voltage = phase voltage
What is the relation between the unit impulse function and the unit ramp function?
A r = dd(t)/dt B d = dr/dt C δ(t) = d²r(t)/dt² D r = d2(d)/dt2 View answer & solution Correct answer: C. δ(t) = d²r(t)/dt²
Two coils having self-inductances of 1 mH and 2 mH are mutually coupled. The maximum possible mutual inductance is ___________
A 1.414 mH B 2 mH C 1 mH D 5.5 mH View answer & solution Correct answer: A. 1.414 mH
A coil has resistance R and inductance L. At ω = ∞, the phase angle between voltage and current is _____________
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This question uses a figure from the original paper. The figure is being added; the answer and explanation are already verified.
In the circuit shown below, find the Z-parameter Z₁₂.
View answer & solution
Electromagnetic torque in rotating electrical machinery is present when ________
A Both stator and rotor windings carry current B Air gap is uniform C Stator winding alone carries current D Rotor winding alone carries current View answer & solution Correct answer: A. Both stator and rotor windings carry current
A 400-V, 1000-A, lap wound DC machine has 10 poles, 860 armature conductors. The number of conductors in the pole face to give full compensation if pole face covers 70% of pole span is
View answer & solution
_________ test is used for determining the efficiency of a traction motor.
A Hopkinson B Retardation C Field D Swinburne View answer & solution
The air gap line represents _________
A Magnetic behaviour of the air gap of the DC machine B Magnetic behaviour of the air gap of the induction machine C Magnetic behaviour of the iron core D All of the mentioned View answer & solution Correct answer: A. Magnetic behaviour of the air gap of the DC machine
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The active power delivered by an alternator will _______ when the prime mover input is increased for the alternator connected to infinite bus bar.
A remain constant B decrease C increase D no relation exists between the power and prime mover droop characteristic View answer & solution Correct answer: C. increase
A synchronous machine has field winding on stator and polyphase armature winding on rotor. At steady state, which of the following is not true for its air gap field?
A Stationary w.r.t. stator B Rotating at double the speed Ns w.r.t. rotor C Rotating in direction opposite to rotor D Rotating at Ns w.r.t. rotor View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Rotating at double the speed Ns w.r.t. rotor
These days alternators are designed to have larger air gaps for __________.
A Stable parallel operation B Higher stability limit C Sinusoidal mmf distribution D All of the mentioned View answer & solution Correct answer: D. All of the mentioned
An induction motor can be said analogous to _________
A Synchronous motor B Transformer C Universal motor D Stepper motor View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Transformer
While conducting open circuit test and short circuit test on a transformer, status of low voltage and high voltage windings will be such that in ____________
A OC test − h.v. open, SC test − l.v. short-circuited B OC test − l.v. open, SC test − h.v. short-circuited C OC test − l.v. open, SC test − l.v. short-circuited D OC test − h.v. open, SC test − h.v. short-circuited View answer & solution Correct answer: A. OC test − h.v. open, SC test − l.v. short-circuited
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A 2000/1000/500 three winding transformer is to be used as auto transformer with supply of 3000V. Two loads of 1050 kVA at 3500 V and other one at 180 kVA at 1000 V. The total kVA supplied will be
A 1230 kVA B 1440 kVA C 1680 kVA D 1150 kVA View answer & solution Correct answer: A. 1230 kVA
Two single phase transformers A and B are operating in parallel having different impedance and identical x/r ratio. Then __________
A A has poorer pf than B B B has poorer pf than B C Lesser power factor angle D Both operate at same power factor View answer & solution Correct answer: D. Both operate at same power factor
A vector is said to be solenoidal when its
A Divergence is zero B Divergence is unity C Curl is zero D Curl is unity View answer & solution Correct answer: A. Divergence is zero
Find the value of Stoke’s theorem for A = x i + y j + z k. The state of the function will be
A Solenoidal B Divergent C Rotational D Curlfree View answer & solution Correct answer: D. Curlfree
Find the power, given energy E = 2J and current density J = x2 varies from x = 0 and x = 1.
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Evaluate the surface integral ∫∫ (3x i + 2y j). dS, where S is the sphere given by x² + y² + z² = 9.
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Three charged cylindrical sheets are present in three spaces with σ = 5 at R = 2m, σ = − 2 at R = 4m and σ = − 3 at R = 5m. Find the flux density at R = 3m.
View answer & solution
The continuity equation is a combination of which of the two laws?
A Ohm’s law and Gauss law B Ampere law and Gauss law C Ohm’s law and Ampere law D Maxwell law and Ampere law View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Ampere law and Gauss law
Calculate the potential of a metal plate of charge 28C and capacitance 12 mF.
A 3.33 k ohm B 2.33 k ohm C 3.33 M ohm D 2.33 M ohm View answer & solution Correct answer: B. 2.33 k ohm
Calculate the emf when the flux is given by 3sin t + 5cos t.
A 3cos t − 5sin t B − 3cos t + 5sin t C − 3sin t − 5cos t D 3cos t + 5sin t View answer & solution Correct answer: B. − 3cos t + 5sin t
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Find the inductance of a coil with permeability 3.5, turns 100 and length 2m. Assume the area to be thrice the length.
A 131.94 mH B 94.131 mH C 131.94 H D 94.131 H View answer & solution Correct answer: A. 131.94 mH
Calculate the conduction current density when the resistivity of a material with an electric field of 5 units is 4.5 units.
View answer & solution
When can one logic gate drive many other logic gates in Digital Electronics?
A When its output impedance is low and the input impedance is low B When its output impedance is high and the input impedance is high C When its output impedance is high and the input impedance is low D When its output impedance is low and the input impedance is high View answer & solution Correct answer: D. When its output impedance is low and the input impedance is high
Which of these error-detecting codes enables to find double errors in Digital Electronic devices?
A Parity method B Checksum method C Bit generation method D Odd-Even method View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Checksum method
If A and B are the inputs of a half adder, then the sum is given by __________
A A AND B B A OR B C A XOR B D A EX-NOR B View answer & solution Correct answer: C. A XOR B
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The systematic reduction of logic circuits is accomplished by _______________
A Symbolic reduction B TTL logic C Using Boolean algebra D Using a truth table View answer & solution Correct answer: C. Using Boolean algebra
How many inputs are required for a 1-of-10 BCD decoder?
View answer & solution
What is the maximum possible range of bit-count specifically in n-bit binary counter consisting of ‘n’ number of flip-flops?
A 0 to 2n B 0 to 2n + 1 C 0 to 2n − 1 D 0 to 2n+1/2 View answer & solution Correct answer: C. 0 to 2n − 1
A 12 MHz clock frequency is applied to a cascaded counter containing a modulus-5 counter, a modulus-8 counter and a modulus-10 counter. The lowest output frequency possible is ________
A 10 kHz B 20 kHz C 30 kHz D 60 kHz View answer & solution Correct answer: C. 30 kHz
A 4-bit ripple counter consists of flip-flops, where each have a propagation delay from clock to Q output of 15 ns. For the counter to recycle from 1111 to 0000, it takes a total of ________
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A bidirectional 4-bit shift register is storing the nibble 1110. Its input is LOW. The nibble 0111 is waiting to be entered on the serial data-input line. After two clock pulses, the shift register is storing ________
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The group of bits 10110111 is serially shifted (rightmost bit first) into an 8-bit parallel output shift register with an initial state 11110000. After two clock pulses, the register contains ____________
A 10111000 B 10110111 C 11110000 D 11111100 View answer & solution Correct answer: D. 11111100
The output frequency related to the sampling interval of a frequency counter as _____________
A Directly with the sampling interval B Inversely with the sampling interval C More precision with longer sampling interval D Less precision with longer sampling interval View answer & solution Correct answer: C. More precision with longer sampling interval
Which type of device may be used to interface a parallel data format with external equipment’s serial format?
A UART B Key matrix C Memory chip D Series in Parallel out View answer & solution
A 4-bit shift register that receives 4 bits of parallel data will shift to the ________ by ________ position for each clock pulse.
A Right, one B Right, two C Left, one D Left, three View answer & solution Correct answer: A. Right, one
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In the case of two-transistor model (T1 & T2) of GTO with anode−short, the anode−short is placed between the
A emitter of T1 and T2 B emitter of T1 and base of T2 C emitter of T1 and base of T1 D emitter of T1 and collector of T2 View answer & solution Correct answer: C. emitter of T1 and base of T1
A step-down delta-star transformer, with per-phase turns ration of 5, is fed from a 3-phase, 1100 V, 50 Hz source. The secondary of this transformer through a 3-pulse type rectifier feeds a R load of 10 Ω. Find the maximum value of the load current (phase).
A √2 × 22 A B 1 × 11 A C √2 × 11 A D 1 × 22 A View answer & solution Correct answer: A. √2 × 22 A
In non-circulating current mode dual converters, the circulating current is avoided by
A Connecting a series reactor B Maintaining α1 + α2 = 180° C Operating only one converter D Adding an extra SCR View answer & solution Correct answer: C. Operating only one converter
In the single−pulse width modulation method, the output voltage waveform is symmetrical about ____________ in the negative half cycle.
View answer & solution
In the case of a single−pulse width modulation with the pulse width = 2d, to eliminate the nth harmonic from the output voltage
A d = π B 2d = π C nd = π D nd = 2π View answer & solution Correct answer: C. nd = π
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The AC voltage controllers are used in __________ applications.
A Power generation B Electric heating C Conveyor belt motion D Power transmission View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Electric heating
In a N-stage sequence controller, each secondary is rated for __________
A n × Vs B Vs C Vs/n D Vs × (n − 1) View answer & solution
The single−phase mid-point type cycloconverter uses __________ number of SCRs.
View answer & solution
Two six pulse converters used for bipolar HVDC transmission system are rated at 1000 MW, ± 200 kV. What is the DC transmission voltage?
A 200 kV B 400 kV C 500 kV D 100 kV View answer & solution Correct answer: B. 400 kV
A single−phase AC switch is used in between a 230 V source and load of 2 kW and 0.8 lagging power factor. Determine the rms current rating required by the SCR. Use the factor of safety = 2.
A 10.87 A B 87 A C 21.74 A D 32 A View answer & solution Correct answer: C. 21.74 A
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Choose the incorrect statement.
A SMPS is less sensitive to input voltage variations B SMPS is smaller as compared to rectifiers C SMPS has low input ripple D SMPS is a source of radio interference View answer & solution Correct answer: C. SMPS has low input ripple
Which of the following signals is monotonic?
A x(t) = t³− 2t B x(t) = sin(t) C x(t) = sin²(2t) + cos²(2t) − 2t D x(t) = log(cos(t)) View answer & solution Correct answer: C. x(t) = sin²(2t) + cos²(2t) − 2t
When is x(t) said to be non-periodic signal?
A If the equation x (t) = x (t + T) is satisfied for all values of T B If the equation x (t) = x (t + T) is satisfied for only one value of T C If the equation x (t) = x (t + T) is satisfied for no values of T D If the equation x (t) = x (t + T) is satisfied for only odd values of T View answer & solution Correct answer: C. If the equation x (t) = x (t + T) is satisfied for no values of T
Determine the discrete−time signal: x(n) = 1 for n ≥ 0 and x(n) = 0 for n < 0.
A Unit ramp sequence B Unit impulse sequence C Exponential sequence D Unit step sequence View answer & solution Correct answer: D. Unit step sequence
For what values of k is the following system stable, y = (k² − 3k − 4)log(x) + sin(x)?
A k = 1, 4 B k = 2, 3 C k = 5, 4 D k = 4, − 1 View answer & solution Correct answer: D. k = 4, − 1
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A 440 V, 50 Hz AC source supplies a series LCR circuit with a capacitor and a coil. If the coil has 100 mΩ resistance and 15 mH inductance, then at a resonance frequency of 50 Hz, the half power frequencies of the circuit are ______________
A 50.53 Hz, 49.57 Hz B 52.12 Hz, 49.8 Hz C 55.02 Hz, 48.95 Hz D 50 Hz, 49 Hz View answer & solution Correct answer: A. 50.53 Hz, 49.57 Hz
A signal e^(−at) sin (ωt) is the input to a real linear time invariant system. Given K and ∅ are constants, the output of the system will be of the form Ke^(−bt) sin (vt + ∅). The correct statement among the following is __________
A b need not be equal to a but v must be equal to ω B v need not be equal to ω but b must be equal to a C b must be equal to a and v must be equal to ω D b need not be equal to a and v need not be equal to ω View answer & solution Correct answer: C. b must be equal to a and v must be equal to ω
A periodic square wave is formed by rectangular pulses ranging from −1 to +1 and period = 2 units. The ratio of the power in the 7th harmonic to the power in the 5th harmonic for this waveform is equal to ____________
View answer & solution
When is Fourier convergence theorem applicable?
A Infinite series limit B Continuous function limit C Discrete function limit D Break point limits View answer & solution Correct answer: A. Infinite series limit
Which of the following waves has the highest value of peak factor?
A Square wave B Sine wave C Half wave rectified sine wave D Triangular wave View answer & solution Correct answer: C. Half wave rectified sine wave
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Time constant of an inductive circuit
A increases with the increase of inductance and the decrease of resistance B increases with the increase of inductance and the increase of resistance C increases with the decrease of inductance and the decrease of resistance D increases with the decrease of inductance and the increase of resistance View answer & solution Correct answer: A. increases with the increase of inductance and the decrease of resistance
The impulse response of an LTI system which is continuous is H (t) = e−|t|. The system is ___________
A Causal and stable B Causal but not stable C Stable but not causal D Neither causal nor stable View answer & solution Correct answer: C. Stable but not causal
Form factor is equal to peak factor in the case of
A Square wave B Triangle wave C Saw tooth wave D Sinusoidal wave View answer & solution Correct answer: A. Square wave
Which of the following reactances is eliminated first in synchronous generator just after the symmetrical fault?
A Leakage reactance B Damper winding reactance C Armature winding reactance D Field winding reactance View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Damper winding reactance
A transmission line Z = (2 + j8) Ω has 10% of the voltage regulation with the lagging load of 0.8. If the load is 0.707 leading, then the V.R. is ________ (Assume the current is same in both cases)
A − 6.63% B − 5.77% C − 10% D − 8.63% View answer & solution Correct answer: A. − 6.63%
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A three−phase transformer having a line voltage ratio of 400/33000 V is connected in the star-delta. The CTs on the 400V side have a CT ratio of 1000/5. What must be the ratio of CTs on the 33000 side?
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The neutral of the three phase 20 MVA, 11 kV alternator is earthed through a resistance of 5 ohms. The relay is set to operate when there is an out of balance current of 1.5 A. The CTs have a ratio of 100/5. What should be the minimum value of the earthing resistance to protect 90% of winding?
A 1.12 Ω B 2.12 Ω C 4.24 Ω D 3.24 Ω View answer & solution Correct answer: B. 2.12 Ω
A single−phase motor is connected to 400V, 50Hz supply. The motor draws a current of 31.7A at a power factor 0.7 lag. The additional reactive power (in VAR) to be supplied by the capacitor bank will be ___________
View answer & solution Correct answer: D. 9055.3
An isolated generator is connected to a turbine with its continuous maximum power of 20 MW, 50 Hz. Generator is connected with two loads of 8 MW, each operates at 50 Hz. Generator has 5% droop characteristic. If an additional load of 6 MW is added, then frequency will be ___________
View answer & solution
If all the sequence voltages at the fault point in a power system are equal, then fault is __________
A LLG fault B LG fault C Three phase to ground fault D Line to Line fault View answer & solution Correct answer: A. LLG fault
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The characteristic equation of a control system is given by s(s + 4)(s² + 2s + s) + k(s + 1) = 0. What are the angles of the asymptotes for the root loci?
A 0°, 180°, 300° B 0°, 120°, 240° C 60°, 180°, 300° D 120°, 180°, 240° View answer & solution Correct answer: C. 60°, 180°, 300°
The unit step response of a second order system is = 1 − e^(−5t) − 5t e^(−5t). Consider the following statements:1. The under damped natural frequency is 5 rad/s.2. The damping ratio is1.3. The impulse response is 25t e^(−5t). Which of the statements given above are correct?
A Only 1 and 2 B Only 2 and 3 C Only 1 and 3 D 1, 2 and 3 View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Only 2 and 3
Assertion (A): A PI controller increases the order of the system by units but decreases the steady state error. Reason (R): A PI controller introduces a pole at either the origin or at a desired points on the negative real axis.
A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) B Both (A) and (R) true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) C (A) is true but (R) is false D (A) is false but (R) is true View answer & solution Correct answer: C. (A) is true but (R) is false
Assertion (A): Routh criterion is in terms of array formulation which is more convenient to handle. Reason (R): This method is used to investigate the method of stability of higher order systems.
A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) B Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) C (A) is true but (R) is false D (A) is false but (R) is true View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
The auto-correlation function of a rectangular pulse of duration T is
A A rectangular pulse of duration T B A rectangular pulse of duration 2T C A triangular pulse of duration T D A triangular pulse of duration 2T View answer & solution Correct answer: D. A triangular pulse of duration 2T
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The method of investigating the stability using Liapunov function is _____________
A The direct method B The indirect method C Not determined D Always unstable View answer & solution Correct answer: A. The direct method
For a unity feedback system, the open loop transfer function is G(s) = K(s + 2)/s² (s² + 7s + 12). What is the type of system?
View answer & solution
What is the response of the feedback function with open loop transfer function G(s) = 4/s(s + 5) and input is input step?
A 1 − 1/3(4e^(−t) − e^(−4t)) B 1 − 1/2(6e^(−t) − e^(−4t)) C 1 − 1/3(6e^(−t) − e^(−4t)) D 1 − 1/2(4e^(−t) − e^(4t)) View answer & solution Correct answer: A. 1 − 1/3(4e^(−t) − e^(−4t))
The open loop transfer function for a unit feedback system is G(s) = K/s(sT + 1). By what factor the amplitude gain K should be reduced so that the peak overshoot becomes 25% from 75%?
View answer & solution
What is the need for a controller?
A Receive control signals B Transmit control signals C Modify control signals D Create control signals View answer & solution Correct answer: C. Modify control signals
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What is the vectored address of RST-5?
A 0010 H B 0032 H C 0028 H D 0030 H View answer & solution Correct answer: C. 0028 H
DAA instruction is used to perform which type of addition?
A BCD addition B Excess-3 addition C Binary addition D Octal addition View answer & solution Correct answer: A. BCD addition
In the I/O mode, the 8255 ports work as
A Reset pins B Set pins C Programmable I/O ports D Only output ports View answer & solution Correct answer: C. Programmable I/O ports
If the value of the pin STB (Strobe Input) falls to low level, then
A Input port is loaded into input latches B Input port is loaded into output latches C Output port is loaded into input latches D Output port is loaded into output latches View answer & solution Correct answer: A. Input port is loaded into input latches
When a stack segment is initialised, then
A SS and SP are initialised B Only SS is initialised C Only SP is initialised D SS and SP need not be initialised View answer & solution Correct answer: A. SS and SP are initialised
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In mode 2, if N is loaded as the count value, then after (N − 1) cycles, the output becomes low for
A 1 clock cycle B 2 clock cycles C 3 clock cycles D 4 clock cycles View answer & solution Correct answer: A. 1 clock cycle
If the zeroth condition is satisfied then, for execution, the JNZ instruction takes
A 1 clock cycle B 2 clock cycles C 3 clock cycles D 4 clock cycles View answer & solution Correct answer: D. 4 clock cycles
The pin that clears the command, request and temporary registers and internal first/last flipflop when it is set is
View answer & solution
The complete software system is divided into
A Main program B Interrupt routine IRT2 for first subprocessing the unit C Interrupt routine IRT3 for first subprocessing the unit D All of the mentioned View answer & solution Correct answer: D. All of the mentioned
The highest priority usage than any other usage is
A Transfer with LOCK (active low) signal B Hold request C Processor extension data transfer D Data transfer performed by EU (execution unit) View answer & solution Correct answer: A. Transfer with LOCK (active low) signal
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A valid HOLD request is ascertained only after the completion of
A 34 clock cycles B 24 clock cycles and 80286 is SET C 34 clock cycles and 80286 is SET D 34 clock cycles and 80286 is RESET View answer & solution Correct answer: D. 34 clock cycles and 80286 is RESET
The number of idle states (Ti), that is allowed between two INTA cycles, to meet the 8259A speed and cascade address output delay is
View answer & solution
HVDC LCCs have ______________
A 1 degree of freedom B 2 degrees of freedom C 5 degrees of freedom D Many degrees of freedom View answer & solution Correct answer: A. 1 degree of freedom
Efficient LCC HVDC converters generally use __________
A thyristor B mercury valves C diodes D mechanical switches View answer & solution Correct answer: A. thyristor
Which insulating material is commonly used in high voltage cables?
A XLPE (Cross-linked polyethylene) B PVC (Polyvinyl chloride) C Wood D Rubber View answer & solution Correct answer: A. XLPE (Cross-linked polyethylene)
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How the sag at higher stages can be reduced in a voltage multiplier circuit?
A By decreasing the capacitance in the higher stages B By decreasing the capacitance in the lower stages C By increasing the capacitance in the higher stages D By increasing the capacitance in the lower stages View answer & solution Correct answer: C. By increasing the capacitance in the higher stages
__________ is the normal length of the cable sample used for testing.
A 1 - 50 cm B 50cm - 10 m C 10 - 100 m D Above 100 m View answer & solution Correct answer: B. 50cm - 10 m
__________ finds the deterioration or failure due to internal discharges caused in the insulation of bushing.
A Power-factor voltage test B Internal or partial discharge test C Visible discharge test D Momentary withstand test View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Internal or partial discharge test
RMS value is defined based on which of the following?
A Heating effect B Charge transfer C Current D Voltage View answer & solution Correct answer: A. Heating effect
A physical system of electromechanical energy conversion consists of a stationary part creating a magnetic field with electric energy input, and a moving part giving mechanical energy output. If the movable part is kept fixed, the entire electrical energy input will be _______
A Stored in the magnetic field B Stored in the electric field C Divided equally between the magnetic and electric fields D Zero View answer & solution Correct answer: A. Stored in the magnetic field
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Which of the following has the highest operating cost?
A Hydroelectric power plant B Thermal power plant C Nuclear power plant D Solar electric power plant View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Thermal power plant
Which of the following represents the annual average load?
A (kWh supplied in a day) / 24 B {(kWh supplied in a day) / 24} × 365 C {(kWh supplied in a month) / (30 × 24) D (kWh supplied in a year) / (24 × 365) View answer & solution Correct answer: D. (kWh supplied in a year) / (24 × 365)
Which of the following is called as cold reserve?
A Reserve capacity available but not ready for use B Reserve capacity available and ready for use C Generating capacity connected to bus and ready to take load D Capacity in service in excess of peak load View answer & solution Correct answer: A. Reserve capacity available but not ready for use
When the momentum of a body is doubled, its kinetic energy ___________
A Remains the same B Drops to zero C Becomes four times its initial kinetic energy D Becomes ten times its kinetic energy View answer & solution Correct answer: C. Becomes four times its initial kinetic energy
In a thermal power station, coal is used for the generation of electricity. How energy changes from one form to another before it is transformed into electrical energy?
A Heat energy → Mechanical energy → Electrical energy B Heat energy → Electrical energy → Mechanical energy C Mechanical energy → Heat energy → Electrical energy D Electrical energy → Heat energy → Mechanical energy View answer & solution Correct answer: A. Heat energy → Mechanical energy → Electrical energy
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What is the primary function of a boiler in a steam power plant?
A To convert mechanical energy into electrical energy B To convert water into steam C To cool down the steam D To increase the pressure of the steam View answer & solution Correct answer: B. To convert water into steam
What is the purpose of a condenser in a steam power plant?
A To convert steam back into water B To increase the temperature of the steam C To generate electricity D To control the speed of turbine View answer & solution Correct answer: A. To convert steam back into water
Which of the following is NOT a type of fuel used in a steam power plant?
A Coal B Natural gas C Uranium D Oil View answer & solution Correct answer: C. Uranium
What is the efficiency of a typical steam power plant?
A 10-20% B 30-40% C 50-60% D 70-80% View answer & solution Correct answer: B. 30-40%
What is the function of a cooling tower in a steam power plant?
A To cool down the steam B To cool down the water from the condenser C To generate electricity D To control the pressure of the steam View answer & solution Correct answer: B. To cool down the water from the condenser
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A new renewable energy system is designed to harvest energy from wind. The total energy required to build the system is 240 kJ. The energy yield ratio of the system is 14:3. What will be the total energy provided by the system over its lifetime?
A 1,120 kJ B 18,000 kJ C 2,258 kJ D 54,000 kJ View answer & solution Correct answer: A. 1,120 kJ
Which of the following is the 7th goal of the eight millennium goals of United Nations?
A To eradicate extreme poverty and hunger B To ensure environment sustainability C To reduce child mortality D To develop a global partnership for development View answer & solution Correct answer: B. To ensure environment sustainability
What is the aim of Paris Agreement in 2015? (Note : C indicates Celsius)
A To keep the decrease in global average temperature to below 2 degree C B To keep the decrease in global average temperature to above 2 degree C C To keep the increase in global average temperature to above 2 degree C D To keep the increase in global average temperature to below 2 degree C View answer & solution Correct answer: D. To keep the increase in global average temperature to below 2 degree C
On what does the energy consumption in Indian transport sector depend?
A Fuel price B Driver C Ergonomics D Fuel tank View answer & solution Correct answer: A. Fuel price
What is Sun’s declination angle during summer solstice?
A 23.5 degrees B 0.53 degrees C 32 minutes D − 23.5 degrees View answer & solution Correct answer: A. 23.5 degrees
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What does the term “Quality Control” mean in the context of Industrial Engineering and Management?
A Maintaining product standards and consistency B Financial risk analysis C Ensuring employee satisfaction D Monitoring production costs View answer & solution Correct answer: A. Maintaining product standards and consistency
The primary objective of the __________ is to consolidate the laws relating to the generation, transmission, distribution, trading and use of electricity in India.
A Energy Conservation Act, 2001 B Electricity Act, 2003 C Indian Electricity Rules, 1956 D IS 3043 View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Electricity Act, 2003
The Indian Standard code of practice for earthing is specified in __________.
A IS 732 B IS 3043 C IS 1956 D IS 2001 View answer & solution Correct answer: B. IS 3043
The policy specifically addressing power generation from municipal solid waste in Gujarat is the __________.
A Gujarat Solar Power Policy-2021 B Gujarat Renewable Energy Policy-2023 C Gujarat Waste to Energy Policy-2022 D Gujarat Small Hydel Policy-2016 View answer & solution Correct answer: C. Gujarat Waste to Energy Policy-2022
The __________ provides for the efficient use of energy and its conservation in India.
A Electricity Act, 2003 B Gujarat Electricity Industry Act, 2003 C Energy Conservation Act, 2001 D Indian Electricity Rules, 1956 View answer & solution Correct answer: C. Energy Conservation Act, 2001
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The Indian Standard, IS 732 provides the code of practice for __________.
A Electrical wiring installations B Earthing systems C Solar panel manufacturing D Wind turbine installation View answer & solution Correct answer: A. Electrical wiring installations
A key function of an Electricity Regulatory Commission is the determination of __________.
A Fuel import quotas B Political election dates C Tariffs for electricity D Manufacturing subsidies View answer & solution Correct answer: C. Tariffs for electricity
The Gujarat Wind Power Policy was established in the year __________.
View answer & solution
The Gujarat Solar Power Policy mentioned in the list was released in __________.
View answer & solution
A primary goal of a Wind Solar Hybrid Power Policy is to __________.
A Promote coal-based power plants B Encourage the separate development of wind and solar farms C Optimize land and grid infrastructure by combining wind and solar generation D Phase out all renewable energy View answer & solution Correct answer: C. Optimize land and grid infrastructure by combining wind and solar generation
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The Gujarat Electricity Industry (Reorganization & Regulation) Act was enacted in the year __________.
View answer & solution
The Star Labeling Program for appliances, indicating energy efficiency, is a key initiative under the __________.
A Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) B Gujarat Energy Development Agency (GEDA) C Central Electricity Authority (CEA) D Indian Standards Institution (ISI) View answer & solution Correct answer: A. Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)
The Gujarat Small Hydel Policy of 2016 typically applies to hydroelectric projects with a station capacity upto __________.
A 10 MW B 25 MW C 50 MW D 100 MW View answer & solution
According to IS 3043, the resistance of an earth connection for a large power station should be as low as possible, ideally not exceeding __________.
A 0.5 Ω B 2.0 Ω C 5.0 Ω D 10.0 Ω View answer & solution
The establishment of the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity (APTEL) was mandated by the __________.
A Indian Electricity Rules, 1956 B Energy Conservation Act, 2001 C Electricity Act, 2003 D IS 732 View answer & solution Correct answer: C. Electricity Act, 2003
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As per IS 732, the colour code for the earth wire in a flexible cable is __________.
View answer & solution
The Gujarat Renewable Energy Policy of 2023 was introduced to supersede previous policies and attract __________ in the RE sector.
A Foreign tourists B Massive investments C Agricultural workers D IT companies View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Massive investments
The Indian Electricity Rules of 1956 were largely focused on ensuring __________ in the electricity sector.
A Profitability B Safety and supply standards C Competition D Privatization View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Safety and supply standards
The Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC) was launched by the __________ to set energy performance standards for new commercial buildings.
A Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) B Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs C Gujarat RERA D GEDA View answer & solution Correct answer: A. Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)
The Gujarat Wind Power Policy of 2016 included provisions for the 'repowering' of older, less efficient __________.
A Solar panels B Wind turbines C Hydro plants D Transformers View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Wind turbines
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The primary purpose of equipment earthing as per IS 3043 is to __________.
A Improve the power factor B Provide a safe path for leakage/fault current to flow C Stabilize the system frequency D Reduce the electricity bill View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Provide a safe path for leakage/fault current to flow
The term period of the Gujarat Solar Power Policy, 2021 is __________.
A 2 years B 3 years C 5 years D 10 years View answer & solution Correct answer: C. 5 years
The policy that allows for setting up wind and solar projects at the same location to save land and transmission infrastructure is the __________.
A Gujarat Small Hydel Policy, 2016 B Gujarat Wind Solar Hybrid Power Policy, 2018-19 C Gujarat Waste to Energy Policy, 2022 D Gujarat Solar Power Policy, 2021 View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Gujarat Wind Solar Hybrid Power Policy, 2018-19
As per IS 732, a leakage current in an installation should not exceed __________ of the full load current.
A 1/500th B 1/1000th C 1/5000th D 1/100th View answer & solution Correct answer: C. 1/5000th
The creation of a National Load Despatch Centre and Regional Load Despatch Centres is mandated by the __________.
A Energy Conservation Act, 2001 B Electricity Act, 2003 C Indian Electricity Rules, 1956 D IS 3043 View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Electricity Act, 2003
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The main objective of the Gujarat Electricity Industry (Reorganization & Regulation) Act, 2003 was aligned with the national policy of __________.
A Increasing coal imports B Power sector reforms C Banning all private players D Nationalizing all power plants View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Power sector reforms
The 'Perform, Achieve and Trade' (PAT) scheme is a market-based mechanism to improve energy efficiency in large industries and is a part of the __________.
A Electricity Act, 2003 B National Action Plan on Climate Change (under BEE) C Gujarat Waste to Energy Policy D Indian Electricity Rules, 1956 View answer & solution Correct answer: B. National Action Plan on Climate Change (under BEE)
The Gujarat Energy Development Agency (GEDA) is primarily focused on __________.
A Regulating electricity tariffs B Promoting energy conservation and renewable energy C Operating large thermal power plants D Managing the state's power grid View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Promoting energy conservation and renewable energy
In an electromechanical lift system, what is the primary function of the governor?
A To open and close the doors B To indicate the floor number C To activate the safety brake in case of overspeeding D To control the lift's interior lighting View answer & solution Correct answer: C. To activate the safety brake in case of overspeeding
What is the typical angle of inclination for a commercial escalator as per general safety standards?
A 15 degrees B 30 degrees C 45 degrees D 60 degrees View answer & solution Correct answer: B. 30 degrees
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Which component in a central air conditioning system is responsible for removing heat from the refrigerant?
A Evaporator B Compressor C Expansion valve D Condenser View answer & solution Correct answer: D. Condenser
As per NBC 2016, which of the following is considered an essential load that must be connected to an emergency power system?
A General office workstations B Water coolers C Fire pumps and fire alarms D Decorative lighting View answer & solution Correct answer: C. Fire pumps and fire alarms
The 'cone of protection' method, specified in lightning protection standards, is used to determine the area protected by a
A Surge protector B Lightning rod (air terminal) C Grounding wire D Fuse View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Lightning rod (air terminal)
What is the main purpose of a Diesel Generator (DG) set in a commercial building?
A To reduce the daily electricity bill B To provide primary power to the entire building C To act as a backup power source during a grid outage D To power only the HVAC system View answer & solution Correct answer: C. To act as a backup power source during a grid outage
What is the primary function of an RCCB (Residual Current Circuit Breaker) in an electrical system?
A To protect against over-voltage B To protect against short circuits C To protect against high-frequency noise D To protect humans from electric shock due to earth faults View answer & solution Correct answer: D. To protect humans from electric shock due to earth faults
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Which system is considered the central 'brain' for controlling and monitoring a building's mechanical and electrical equipment such as ventilation, lighting and power systems?
A CCTV System B Public Address System C Building Management System (BMS) D Fire Alarm System View answer & solution Correct answer: C. Building Management System (BMS)
Which of the following is typically NOT controlled by a building's Audio-Video (AV) system?
A Projectors and screens in a conference room B Background music system C Video conferencing equipment D The building's fire hydrant pressure View answer & solution Correct answer: D. The building's fire hydrant pressure
In computer networking, which topology involves connecting all devices in a circular fashion?
View answer & solution
What is a key area of focus introduced in the National Electrical Code (NEC) of India, 2023?
A Phasing out all incandescent lighting B Mandating specific brands of wires C Regulations for electrical vehicle charging infrastructure D Prohibiting the use of aluminium wiring View answer & solution Correct answer: C. Regulations for electrical vehicle charging infrastructure
What is the main function of a Manual Call Point (MCP) in a fire alarm system?
A To automatically detect smoke B To allow a person to manually trigger the fire alarm C To silence the alarm after an incident D To test the sprinkler system View answer & solution Correct answer: B. To allow a person to manually trigger the fire alarm
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Which lamp technology is currently the most energy-efficient and widely adopted for new street lighting projects?
A High-Pressure Sodium (HPS) B Mercury Vapor C Metal Halide D Light Emitting Diode (LED) View answer & solution Correct answer: D. Light Emitting Diode (LED)
In street lighting, the term 'luminaire' refers to
A Only the light bulb or lamp B The supporting pole C The complete lighting fixture including the lamp, housing and reflector D The underground electrical cable View answer & solution Correct answer: C. The complete lighting fixture including the lamp, housing and reflector
Which type of pump is most commonly used for boosting water pressure in the water supply systems of tall buildings?
A Reciprocating pump B Submersible pump C Centrifugal pump D Diaphragm pump View answer & solution Correct answer: C. Centrifugal pump
What does the 'total head' of a pump represent?
A The pump's physical size B The rotational speed of the motor C The total height to which a pump can move water, accounting for friction losses D The volume of water it can move per minute View answer & solution Correct answer: C. The total height to which a pump can move water, accounting for friction losses
Wide−Bandgap (WBG) semiconductors like Gallium Nitride (GaN) are becoming popular in power electronics primarily because they offer _________
A Lower cost than silicon B Higher efficiency and smaller size for power converters C Easier manufacturing processes D Better performance at very low temperatures View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Higher efficiency and smaller size for power converters
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The principle of operation for most common wireless charging pads for mobile devices is based on
A Static electricity B Electromagnetic induction C Solar radiation D Piezoelectric effect View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Electromagnetic induction
In a traction lift, what is the function of the counterweight?
A It acts as an emergency brake B It balances the weight of the lift car and a portion of its load to save energy C It houses the lift control panel D It generates electricity for the lift View answer & solution Correct answer: B. It balances the weight of the lift car and a portion of its load to save energy
A Variable Air Volume (VAV) system in HVAC is designed to
A Vary the temperature of the air while keeping the flow constant B Vary the airflow to a zone based on its temperature needs C Vary the humidity of the air supply D Only operate at two speeds, high and low View answer & solution Correct answer: B. Vary the airflow to a zone based on its temperature needs
For a balanced three phase, three wire system with input power of 10 kW at 0.9 power factor, the readings on both wattmeter are _________ respectively
A 7 kW, 3 kW B 5000 W, 5000 W C 7600 W, 1200 W D 6350 W, 3650 W View answer & solution Correct answer: D. 6350 W, 3650 W