Electrical Engineering · updated 23 Oct 2026

Energy Management & Electricity Laws MCQ – 54 previous year questions with solutions

Every Energy Management & Electricity Laws question asked in GPSC DEE Electrical, GPSC AE Electrical, GPSSB AAE Electrical, Vidyut Sahayak JE — arranged topic by topic, with the exam and paper shown on each question.

54 PYQs8 topics4 papersFree PDF
Chapter practice0/54✓ 0✗ 0

Renewable Energy Policy MCQs 18

Open Renewable Energy Policy page →

Renewable Energy Policy › Hybrid Renewable Systems (2)

Q1Easy
A primary goal of a Wind Solar Hybrid Power Policy is to __________.
View answer & solution
Correct answer: C. Optimize land and grid infrastructure by combining wind and solar generation
Quick explanation

A wind-solar hybrid policy seeks to combine wind and solar generation so shared land and transmission/grid infrastructure are used more efficiently while the complementary generation profiles improve utilization.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report
Q2Easy
The policy that allows for setting up wind and solar projects at the same location to save land and transmission infrastructure is the __________.
View answer & solution
Correct answer: B. Gujarat Wind Solar Hybrid Power Policy, 2018-19
Quick explanation

The Gujarat Wind-Solar Hybrid Power Policy, 2018-19 promotes wind and solar projects at the same location/shared evacuation system so land and transmission infrastructure can be utilized more efficiently.

Wind + solar at shared site/grid point → hybrid policy
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Renewable Energy Policy › Solar Energy (2)

Q3Easy
The Gujarat Solar Power Policy mentioned in the list was released in __________.
View answer & solution
Correct answer: C. 2021
Quick explanation

The Gujarat Solar Power Policy named in the question was released in 2021. It is therefore identified as the Gujarat Solar Power Policy, 2021.

Gujarat Solar Power Policy → 2021
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report
Q4Easy
The term period of the Gujarat Solar Power Policy, 2021 is __________.
View answer & solution
Correct answer: C. 5 years
Quick explanation

The Gujarat Solar Power Policy, 2021 referenced in the paper has a policy term of five years. This is a historical policy-edition fact and should be stored with the 2021 policy context.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Renewable Energy Policy › Wind Energy (2)

Q5Easy
The Gujarat Wind Power Policy was established in the year __________.
View answer & solution
Correct answer: A. 2016
Quick explanation

The Gujarat Wind Power Policy referenced by the paper was established in 2016. This is a policy-year identification question and should be kept tied to the named policy edition rather than generalized to later renewable-policy frameworks.

Gujarat Wind Power Policy → 2016 (as referenced in the paper)
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report
Q6Easy
The Gujarat Wind Power Policy of 2016 included provisions for the 'repowering' of older, less efficient __________.
View answer & solution
Correct answer: B. Wind turbines
Quick explanation

Repowering means replacing older, lower-capacity/less-efficient wind turbines at good wind sites with modern higher-capacity machines, improving energy yield and infrastructure utilization.

Repowering: old wind turbines → modern higher-capacity/higher-efficiency turbines
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Renewable Energy Policy › Eligibility (1)

Q7Moderate
With reference to "Green Energy Open Access" in Gujarat, consider the following:
1. Any consumer with a load of 100 kW or above can opt for Green Energy Open Access.
2. There are no limit restrictions for residential consumers.
3. Cross-subsidy surcharge is completely waived for Green Energy Open Access for all consumer categories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: C. 1 only
Quick explanation

Green Energy Open Access permits eligible consumers to procure renewable electricity through open access subject to regulations, network feasibility and applicable charges. The 100 kW contracted-demand/sanctioned-load threshold is a key eligibility point in the Green Energy Open Access framework, while blanket claims that every category is exempt from cross-subsidy surcharge are incorrect.

Exam focus: Check threshold, captive exceptions and surcharge provisions separately. Common trap: Green open access does not mean all charges are automatically waived.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Renewable Energy Policy › Energy Banking (1)

Q8Moderate
With reference to "Energy Banking," consider the following:
1. It allows a renewable energy generator to "deposit" surplus power into the grid and "withdraw" it later.
2. Banking is typically allowed on a monthly or yearly basis as per State Electricity Regulatory Commission (SERC) norms.
3. The grid owner usually charges a "banking fee" in the form of a percentage of the energy stored.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: C. 1, 2 and 3
Quick explanation

Energy banking is a regulatory arrangement in which eligible renewable generation exported at one time can be adjusted or withdrawn against consumption in another permitted period. The settlement period, banking charge/loss and eligibility are set by the applicable electricity-regulatory framework, so exam questions should distinguish the concept from the exact state-specific percentages.

Exam focus: Separate the concept of banking from the current regulatory rate. Common trap: Do not assume banking is free or unlimited.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Renewable Energy Policy › Gujarat Renewable Energy Policy 2023 (1)

Q9Easy
The Gujarat Renewable Energy Policy of 2023 was introduced to supersede previous policies and attract __________ in the RE sector.
View answer & solution
Correct answer: B. Massive investments
Quick explanation

The Gujarat Renewable Energy Policy, 2023 was introduced as an umbrella framework intended to expand renewable deployment and attract large-scale investment in the state's renewable-energy sector.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Renewable Energy Policy › Gujarat Waste-to-Energy Policy (1)

Q10Moderate
Regarding the Gujarat Waste to Energy Policy 2022, consider the following:
1. The policy focuses primarily on the generation of power from Municipal Solid Waste (MSW).
2. Projects under this policy are exempted from the payment of Electricity Duty.
3. The state government provides a capital subsidy for the procurement of waste segregation machinery.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: A. 1 and 2 only
Quick explanation

Waste-to-energy policy links municipal solid-waste management with useful energy recovery. Policy incentives such as electricity-duty treatment, land, tariff or other concessions are jurisdiction- and year-specific, so they must be evaluated against the named Gujarat policy rather than inferred from generic renewable-energy incentives. Key relation: MSW-to-energy converts suitable waste fractions into electricity/heat after required processing.

Exam focus: Distinguish core policy scope from a specific subsidy claim. Common trap: Do not invent a capital subsidy simply because a project is renewable or waste-based.

MSW-to-energy converts suitable waste fractions into electricity/heat after required processing.
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Renewable Energy Policy › Net Metering (1)

Q11Easy
Consider the following statements regarding "Net Metering" in Gujarat:
1. It is applicable to rooftop solar systems where generated power is first used for self-consumption.
2. The surplus energy is fed back into the grid and credited in the next bill.
3. It is only available for industrial and commercial consumers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: D. 1 and 2 only
Quick explanation

Net metering for rooftop solar lets a consumer use solar generation behind the meter first and export surplus to the grid, with import/export energy settled according to the applicable regulatory billing mechanism. It is not inherently limited to industrial and commercial consumers. Key relation: Net energy settlement compares grid import and eligible export over the billing/settlement period.

Exam focus: Self-consumption happens before surplus export in the usual arrangement. Common trap: Do not equate net metering with only C&I open access.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Renewable Energy Policy › Residential Rooftop Solar (1)

Q12Moderate
What does the Gujarat policy state about residential solar projects and consumer sanctioned load?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: B. Solar projects are allowed irrespective of sanctioned load
Quick explanation

B — Solar projects are allowed irrespective of sanctioned load. This matches the residential rooftop/premises provision of Gujarat Solar Power Policy 2021 referenced in the existing solution.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Renewable Energy Policy › Small Hydel Policy (1)

Q13Moderate
Consider the following statements regarding the Gujarat Small Hydel Policy:
1. Small hydel projects are typically classified for capacities up to 25 MW.
2. Hydropower projects are considered “must-run” sources and are given priority in grid dispatch.
3. Tariff determination for small hydel projects is carried out by the State Electricity Regulatory Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: C. 1 and 3 only
Quick explanation

Small-hydropower questions combine capacity classification, grid-dispatch treatment and tariff regulation. In India, 'small hydro' is commonly associated with projects up to 25 MW, while tariff and scheduling treatment is governed by the relevant electricity commission/regulations. Key relation: Hydro power P≈ρgQHη.

Exam focus: Keep capacity definition, dispatch status and tariff authority as separate statements. Common trap: Do not assume every renewable technology has identical scheduling treatment.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Renewable Energy Policy › Small Hydropower (1)

Q14Easy
The Gujarat Small Hydel Policy of 2016 typically applies to hydroelectric projects with a station capacity upto __________.
View answer & solution
Correct answer: B. 25 MW
Quick explanation

Under the Gujarat Small Hydel Policy, 2016 referenced by the paper, eligible small hydel projects are treated up to a station capacity of 25 MW, matching the keyed option.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Renewable Energy Policy › Solar Power Policy 2021 (1)

Q15Moderate
Consider the following features of the Gujarat Solar Power Policy 2021:
1. It removed the restriction on installed capacity for solar projects with respect to the sanctioned load.
2. It allows consumers to set up solar projects for self-consumption on their premises or elsewhere.
3. It provides for a security deposit to be submitted by the developer to the Distribution Licensee (DISCOM).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: D. 1, 2 and 3
Quick explanation

This PYQ tests specific provisions attributed to the Gujarat Solar Power Policy 2021, including capacity treatment, self-consumption project location and developer/security requirements. Because policy clauses are notification-specific, the answer should be tied to the policy version named in the question rather than generalized from current rooftop-solar rules.

Exam focus: Read every policy statement literally and avoid importing rules from a different scheme/year. Common trap: Do not substitute current regulations for the policy version named in a PYQ.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Renewable Energy Policy › State Energy Agencies (1)

Q16Easy
The Gujarat Energy Development Agency (GEDA) is primarily focused on __________.
View answer & solution
Correct answer: B. Promoting energy conservation and renewable energy
Quick explanation

GEDA primarily promotes renewable energy and energy-conservation activities in Gujarat, including facilitation, awareness and implementation support for clean-energy/efficiency programs. It is not the state's tariff regulator or grid operator.

GEDA → renewable energy + energy conservation promotion
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Renewable Energy Policy › Waste-to-Energy (1)

Q17Easy
The policy specifically addressing power generation from municipal solid waste in Gujarat is the __________.
View answer & solution
Correct answer: C. Gujarat Waste to Energy Policy-2022
Quick explanation

The Gujarat policy specifically directed at electricity/energy generation from municipal solid waste is the Gujarat Waste to Energy Policy, 2022. Its subject matter distinguishes it directly from solar, small-hydel and general renewable-energy policies.

Municipal solid waste → Waste-to-Energy policy
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Renewable Energy Policy › Wind-Solar Hybrid Policy (1)

Q18Moderate
Consider the following statements regarding the Gujarat Wind-Solar Hybrid Power Policy (2018-19):
1. It allows for the "Type-A" category, which involves the hybridization of existing wind or solar plants.
2. The policy encourages the use of the same transmission line to evacuate power from both the sources.
3. Hybrid projects are eligible for a 50% concession on cross-subsidy surcharge when selling to a third party.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: C. 1 and 2 only
Quick explanation

Wind-solar hybrid policy combines complementary generation profiles and can share evacuation infrastructure. The Gujarat policy distinguishes project categories including hybridization of existing assets; surcharge concessions and third-party-sale charges are policy-specific and must be read exactly from the named policy/order. Key relation: Hybridization can improve utilization of common evacuation capacity.

Exam focus: Separate technical hybrid benefits from regulatory surcharge provisions. Common trap: Do not assume a generic percentage concession unless the named policy explicitly provides it.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Electricity Act & Regulation MCQs 11

Open Electricity Act & Regulation page →

Electricity Act & Regulation › Appellate Tribunal for Electricity (1)

Q19Easy
The establishment of the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity (APTEL) was mandated by the __________.
View answer & solution
Correct answer: C. Electricity Act, 2003
Quick explanation

The Electricity Act, 2003 provides for the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity (APTEL), which hears appeals against specified orders of electricity regulatory commissions/adjudicating authorities.

Electricity Act 2003 → CERC/SERC framework + APTEL appellate mechanism
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Electricity Act & Regulation › Cross-Subsidy Surcharge (1)

Q20Moderate
Consider the following statements regarding the "Cross-Subsidy Surcharge":
1. It is payable by consumers who opt for open access.
2. It is intended to compensate the distribution licensee for the loss of cross-subsidy.
3. The State Commission has no power to reduce or eliminate this surchargeWhich of the statements given above is/are correct?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: B. 1 and 2 only
Quick explanation

State Commissions have a central role in introducing and regulating distribution-level open access and associated charges. Cross-subsidy surcharge compensates the incumbent distribution licensee for loss of cross-subsidy and is determined/reduced under the regulatory framework. Key relation: Open access charges may include transmission/wheeling, cross-subsidy and other applicable charges.

Exam focus: Open access is not limited to a Central Transmission Utility. Common trap: The State Commission does have regulatory authority over surcharge treatment.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Electricity Act & Regulation › Electricity Act 2003 (1)

Q21Easy
The primary objective of the __________ is to consolidate the laws relating to the generation, transmission, distribution, trading and use of electricity in India.
View answer & solution
Correct answer: B. Electricity Act, 2003
Quick explanation

The Electricity Act, 2003 consolidates the legal framework relating to generation, transmission, distribution, trading and use of electricity in India. It replaced/consolidated major earlier electricity statutes and established the modern sector framework.

Electricity Act, 2003 → generation + transmission + distribution + trading + use
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Electricity Act & Regulation › Energy Wheeling (1)

Q22Easy
Consider the following statements regarding "Energy Wheeling":
1. It is the process of transporting electricity from a generator to a remote consumer using the existing transmission/distribution grid.
2. Wheeling charges are paid by the generator or consumer to the grid owner (DISCOM/TRANSCO).
3. Wheeling is only permitted for thermal power plants and not for renewable energy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: A. 1 and 2 only
Quick explanation

Wheeling separates ownership of energy from ownership of the wires. The generator and consumer may contract for power while the physical electricity flows through a transmission/distribution licensee’s network, subject to grid-code, open-access and tariff rules. Key relation: Commercial concept: delivered energy uses network capacity; applicable charges may include transmission/wheeling and other regulatory charges depending on jurisdiction.

Exam focus: Wheeling = use of someone else’s grid; do not confuse it with energy banking. Common trap: Assuming renewable power must be consumed only at the point of generation.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Electricity Act & Regulation › Indian Electricity Rules 1956 (1)

Q23Easy
The Indian Electricity Rules of 1956 were largely focused on ensuring __________ in the electricity sector.
View answer & solution
Correct answer: B. Safety and supply standards
Quick explanation

The Indian Electricity Rules, 1956 largely prescribed safety requirements and standards relating to electricity supply, installation and operation. Their emphasis was safe electrical practice rather than competition, privatization or profitability.

Indian Electricity Rules 1956 → safety + supply/installation requirements
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Electricity Act & Regulation › Open Access (1)

Q24Moderate
Under the Electricity Act, 2003, "Open Access" means:
1. The non-discriminatory provision for the use of transmission lines or distribution system.
2. It is only applicable to Central Transmission Utilities.
3. It can be introduced in phases by the State Commissions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: C. 1 and 3 only
Quick explanation

The Electricity Act defines open access as non-discriminatory use of transmission lines or distribution systems by eligible users in accordance with regulations. State Commissions have a central role in introducing and regulating distribution-level open access and associated charges. Key relation: Open access charges may include transmission/wheeling, cross-subsidy and other applicable charges.

Exam focus: Open access is not limited to a Central Transmission Utility. Common trap: The State Commission does have regulatory authority over surcharge treatment.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Electricity Act & Regulation › Power Sector Reform (1)

Q25Easy
The main objective of the Gujarat Electricity Industry (Reorganization & Regulation) Act, 2003 was aligned with the national policy of __________.
View answer & solution
Correct answer: B. Power sector reforms
Quick explanation

The Gujarat Electricity Industry reorganization legislation was aligned with broader power-sector reforms—restructuring utilities, improving regulation, commercial discipline and sector performance rather than nationalizing all generation or banning private participation.

Reorganization + regulation → power-sector reform
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Electricity Act & Regulation › Power System Operation (1)

Q26Easy
The creation of a National Load Despatch Centre and Regional Load Despatch Centres is mandated by the __________.
View answer & solution
Correct answer: B. Electricity Act, 2003
Quick explanation

The Electricity Act, 2003 provides the statutory framework for National and Regional Load Despatch Centres (and state load despatch arrangements) to coordinate secure and economic operation of the power system.

NLDC/RLDC/SLDC → grid operation and scheduling framework under Electricity Act 2003
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Electricity Act & Regulation › Regulatory Commissions (1)

Q27Easy
A key function of an Electricity Regulatory Commission is the determination of __________.
View answer & solution
Correct answer: C. Tariffs for electricity
Quick explanation

A core function of electricity regulatory commissions is determining/regulating electricity tariffs under the applicable statutory framework, along with licensing, standards and market/regulatory oversight.

Regulatory function → tariff determination / approval
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Electricity Act & Regulation › State Electricity Regulatory Commission (1)

Q28Moderate
Consider the following functions of the State Electricity Regulatory Commission (SERC):
1. To determine the tariff for generation, supply, transmission and wheeling of electricity.
2. To advise the State Government on matters relating to promotion of competition and efficiency.
3. To adjudicate upon disputes between the licensees and generating companies.
Which of the functions given above is/are correct?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: C. 1, 2 and 3
Quick explanation

State Electricity Regulatory Commissions perform statutory regulatory functions under the Electricity Act, including tariff-related responsibilities, advising State Governments on competition/efficiency and adjudicating specified disputes between licensees and generating companies. The exact scope is statutory, not merely administrative. Key relation: SERC functions are grounded in the Electricity Act and state regulatory framework.

Exam focus: Tariff, advisory and dispute-adjudication roles are distinct functions. Common trap: Do not confuse the regulator with the transmission or distribution utility.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Electricity Act & Regulation › State Power Sector Reform (1)

Q29Easy
The Gujarat Electricity Industry (Reorganization & Regulation) Act was enacted in the year __________.
View answer & solution
Correct answer: C. 2003
Quick explanation

The Gujarat Electricity Industry (Reorganization and Regulation) Act referenced in the paper was enacted in 2003 as part of the state's electricity-sector restructuring and regulatory reform framework.

Gujarat Electricity Industry (Reorganization & Regulation) Act → 2003
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Energy Conservation Act & BEE MCQs 8

Open Energy Conservation Act & BEE page →

Energy Conservation Act & BEE › BEE Star Label (1)

Q30Easy
Consider the following statements regarding "Star Labeling" by BEE:
1. It is mandatory for equipment like Frost-free Refrigerators and Room Air Conditioners.
2. A 5-star rated appliance is more energy-efficient than a 1-star rated appliance.
3. The label indicates the "Energy Consumption" of the product under standard test conditions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: D. 1, 2 and 3
Quick explanation

BEE's Standards & Labelling programme communicates comparative appliance energy performance under standard test conditions. More stars generally indicate higher energy efficiency within the applicable label period/category, and mandatory labelling applies to notified equipment classes such as room air conditioners and frost-free refrigerators. Key relation: Compare annual energy consumption and star band on the same label period/category.

Exam focus: Star count is a comparative efficiency indicator. Common trap: Do not compare star ratings across different product classes without context.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Energy Conservation Act & BEE › Building Energy Codes (1)

Q31Easy
The Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC) was launched by the __________ to set energy performance standards for new commercial buildings.
View answer & solution
Correct answer: A. Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)
Quick explanation

The Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC) is developed/launched under the Bureau of Energy Efficiency framework to set minimum energy-performance requirements for commercial buildings and reduce building energy demand.

ECBC → commercial-building energy performance standards → BEE
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Energy Conservation Act & BEE › Bureau of Energy Efficiency (1)

Q32Moderate
Consider the following statements regarding the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE):
1. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
2. It coordinates with designated consumers and agencies to recognize and utilize energy effectively.
3. The "PAT" (Perform, Achieve and Trade) scheme is a flagship program of BEE for energy-intensive industries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: B. 2 and 3 only
Quick explanation

The Bureau of Energy Efficiency is a statutory body created under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 and operates under India's Ministry of Power. It coordinates national energy-efficiency programmes and administers major initiatives including Perform, Achieve and Trade for energy-intensive designated consumers. Key relation: PAT sets specific energy-consumption targets and enables trading of Energy Saving Certificates subject to scheme rules.

Exam focus: BEE belongs to the Ministry of Power, not MNRE. Common trap: Do not confuse BEE with the renewable-energy ministry/agency structure.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Energy Conservation Act & BEE › ECBC (1)

Q33Moderate
Consider the following statements about the Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC):
1. It sets minimum energy standards for commercial buildings.
2. Compliance with ECBC is mandatory for all residential buildings regardless of size.
3. It covers components like building envelope, lighting and HVAC systems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: B. 1 and 3 only
Quick explanation

The Energy Conservation Building Code sets minimum energy-performance requirements for applicable commercial buildings and covers envelope, lighting, electrical systems and HVAC/service systems. It is not a blanket mandatory code for every residential building regardless of size; residential energy codes are handled separately. Key relation: Whole-building compliance can use prescriptive or performance approaches depending on code version/state adoption.

Exam focus: Commercial-building scope is the key exam distinction. Common trap: Do not apply ECBC indiscriminately to all residential buildings.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Energy Conservation Act & BEE › Energy Conservation Act 2001 (1)

Q34Easy
The __________ provides for the efficient use of energy and its conservation in India.
View answer & solution
Correct answer: C. Energy Conservation Act, 2001
Quick explanation

The Energy Conservation Act, 2001 provides the statutory framework for efficient use of energy and its conservation in India. It supports mechanisms such as the Bureau of Energy Efficiency, standards/labeling and energy-efficiency obligations.

Energy Conservation Act, 2001 → energy efficiency and conservation Electricity Act, 2003 → electricity-sector structure/regulation
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Energy Conservation Act & BEE › Industrial Energy Efficiency (1)

Q35Moderate
The 'Perform, Achieve and Trade' (PAT) scheme is a market-based mechanism to improve energy efficiency in large industries and is a part of the __________.
View answer & solution
Correct answer: B. National Action Plan on Climate Change (under BEE)
Quick explanation

PAT (Perform, Achieve and Trade) is a market-based mechanism for improving energy efficiency in energy-intensive industries. It operates within India's national energy-efficiency/climate-action framework under BEE and allows trading of energy-saving certificates.

specific energy-consumption target → verify savings → ESCerts → trade/compliance
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Energy Conservation Act & BEE › Standards and Labeling (1)

Q36Easy
The Star Labeling Program for appliances, indicating energy efficiency, is a key initiative under the __________.
View answer & solution
Correct answer: A. Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)
Quick explanation

The appliance Star Labeling Program is a key energy-efficiency initiative of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE). The labels communicate comparative energy performance so consumers can choose more efficient products.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Energy Conservation Act & BEE › Standards and Labelling (1)

Q37Moderate
Under the Energy Conservation Act, the "Standards and Labeling" (S&L) scheme applies to:
1. Household appliances like refrigerators and ACs.
2. Agricultural pump sets.
3. Industrial equipment like motors.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
View answer & solution
Correct answer: D. 1, 2 and 3
Quick explanation

The Bureau of Energy Efficiency is a statutory body created under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 and operates under India's Ministry of Power. It coordinates national energy-efficiency programmes and administers major initiatives including Perform, Achieve and Trade for energy-intensive designated consumers. Key relation: PAT sets specific energy-consumption targets and enables trading of Energy Saving Certificates subject to scheme rules.

Exam focus: BEE belongs to the Ministry of Power, not MNRE. Common trap: Do not confuse BEE with the renewable-energy ministry/agency structure.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Energy Efficiency in Utilities MCQs 6

Open Energy Efficiency in Utilities page →

Energy Efficiency in Utilities › Chiller Efficiency (1)

Q38Easy
Regarding HVAC and Chiller systems, consider the following energy-saving measures:
1. Increasing the chilled water supply temperature.
2. Cleaning the condenser tubes regularly to maintain heat transfer efficiency.
3. Using cooling tower water that is as warm as possible to reduce the compressor load.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: B. 1 and 2 only
Quick explanation

A modest increase in chilled-water supply temperature can improve efficiency if comfort/process requirements permit, while clean condenser tubes preserve heat transfer. Colder cooling-tower water generally reduces compressor lift; warm condenser water increases it. Key relation: Lower condensing temperature / higher evaporating temperature → lower compressor work.

Exam focus: Keep heat-exchanger surfaces clean and approach temperatures small. Common trap: Warm cooling-tower water does not reduce chiller compressor load.

Lower condensing temperature / higher evaporating temperature → lower compressor work.
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Energy Efficiency in Utilities › Compressed Air Systems (1)

Q39Easy
Consider the following regarding Compressed Air Systems:
1. Reducing the delivery pressure of the compressor saves energy.
2. Leakages in the compressed air piping can account for up to 30% of energy waste.
3. Air intake for the compressor should be from a hot and humid area to improve volumetric efficiency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: C. 1 and 2 only
Quick explanation

Reducing unnecessary delivery pressure and fixing leaks saves energy. Cooler, clean intake air improves density and compressor capacity; hot humid intake does not improve volumetric efficiency. Key relation: Compressor power generally rises with pressure ratio; leakage flow also rises with pressure.

Exam focus: Find and repair leaks before adding compressor capacity. Common trap: Hot intake air reduces air density and volumetric performance.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Energy Efficiency in Utilities › Efficient Transformers (1)

Q40Easy
With reference to Transformers, which of the following measures improve energy efficiency?
1. Replacing old aluminum-wound transformers with copper-wound transformers.
2. Using Amorphous Core transformers to reduce no-load (iron) losses.
3. Operating transformers at 90-100% of their rated capacity for maximum efficiency.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
View answer & solution
Correct answer: C. 1 and 2 only
Quick explanation

An ideal transformer conserves apparent power and relates voltages, turns and currents inversely. Real transformers additionally have core and copper losses. Key relation: V1/V2=N1/N2=a; I1/I2=N2/N1=1/a; ideal V1I1=V2I2.

Exam focus: Voltage ratio follows turns ratio; current ratio is inverse. Common trap: In an ideal transformer input power equals output power.

V1/V2=N1/N2=a; I1/I2=N2/N1=1/a; ideal V1I1=V2I2.
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Energy Efficiency in Utilities › Power Factor Improvement (1)

Q41Easy
Consider the following statements regarding Power Factor improvement:
1. Improving the power factor reduces the kVA demand of the plant.
2. Capacitors should be installed as close to the inductive load as possible to reduce line losses.
3. A high power factor increases the current flowing through the transmission lines for the same kW load.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: A. 1 and 2 only
Quick explanation

For a fixed real-power load and supply voltage, poor power factor requires higher current. Raising power factor with shunt capacitors or an over-excited synchronous machine reduces kVA demand, line current and I²R losses and generally improves voltage regulation. Key relation: Single phase: I=P/(V·PF). Three phase: I=P/(√3 V_L·PF).

Exam focus: For the same kW, current is inversely proportional to power factor. Common trap: Capacitors supply leading reactive power; they do not supply lagging VARs.

Single phase: I=P/(V·PF). Three phase: I=P/(√3 VL·PF).
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Energy Efficiency in Utilities › Variable Frequency Drives (1)

Q42Moderate
With reference to Variable Frequency Drives (VFDs) in pumping systems:
1. VFDs save energy by varying the motor speed instead of using a throttle valve.
2. According to affinity laws, reducing the pump speed by 20% reduces power consumption by nearly 50%.
3. VFDs are most effective in systems with high static head.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: A. 1 and 2 only
Quick explanation

For centrifugal pumps in systems dominated by friction head, affinity laws show flow approximately proportional to speed, head to speed squared and power to speed cubed. VFD speed control therefore saves much more energy than throttling when variable flow is required. Key relation: Q∝N; H∝N²; P∝N³.

Exam focus: 20% speed reduction: power≈0.8³=0.512, about 49% saving. Common trap: High static-head systems reduce the benefit predicted by pure affinity laws.

Q∝N; H∝N²; P∝N³.
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Energy Efficiency in Utilities › Waste Heat Recovery (1)

Q43Easy
Consider the following statements regarding "Waste Heat Recovery" (WHR):
1. It involves capturing heat from industrial exhaust gases to generate steam or power.
2. Economizers in boilers are a common example of WHR.
3. WHR increases the carbon footprint of the industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: A. 1 and 2 only
Quick explanation

Waste-heat recovery captures thermal energy that would otherwise leave through exhaust gases or hot process streams and uses it for feedwater heating, steam generation, process heating or power generation. Boiler economizers are a classic example because they use flue-gas heat to preheat feedwater, reducing fuel requirement and emissions for the same useful output.

Exam focus: Economizer = flue-gas heat recovery to feedwater. Common trap: WHR generally reduces, not increases, carbon intensity.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Energy & Environment MCQs 4

Open Energy & Environment page →

Energy & Environment › Energy Consumption (1)

Q44Easy
On what does the energy consumption in Indian transport sector depend?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: A. Fuel price
Quick explanation

Transport energy use is strongly influenced by fuel price because price affects travel demand, vehicle choice, operating behavior and the economic attractiveness of efficiency measures. Among the listed choices, fuel price is the relevant system-level driver.

Transport energy ≈ activity × energy intensity
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Energy & Environment › Energy Institutions and Targets (1)

Q45Moderate
Consider the following statements regarding the Energy Scenario in India:
1. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is a statutory body under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
2. India has committed to achieving Net Zero emissions by the year 2070.
3. The industrial sector is the largest consumer of electrical energy in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: B. 2 and 3 only
Quick explanation

The Bureau of Energy Efficiency is a statutory body under the Ministry of Power, not MNRE. India's announced net-zero target is 2070; sector-consumption statements should be interpreted using the electrical-energy context stated in the paper. Key relation: Institutional mapping and target year are factual recall items; sector share depends on the stated energy metric.

Exam focus: Separate Ministry of Power/BEE from MNRE renewable-energy institutions. Common trap: Do not mix total final energy consumption with electrical-energy consumption statistics.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Energy & Environment › Millennium Development Goals (1)

Q46Easy
Which of the following is the 7th goal of the eight millennium goals of United Nations?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: B. To ensure environment sustainability
Quick explanation

The seventh Millennium Development Goal (MDG 7) is 'Ensure environmental sustainability.' The eight MDGs preceded the Sustainable Development Goals and had a target horizon of 2015.

MDG 7 = Ensure environmental sustainability
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Energy & Environment › Paris Agreement (1)

Q47Easy
What is the aim of Paris Agreement in 2015? (Note : C indicates Celsius)
View answer & solution
Correct answer: D. To keep the increase in global average temperature to below 2 degree C
Quick explanation

The Paris Agreement aims to hold the increase in global average temperature well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels and pursue efforts to limit the increase to 1.5°C. Therefore the correct direction is to keep the increase below the stated threshold, not a decrease in temperature.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Energy Audit MCQs 3

Open Energy Audit page →

Energy Audit › Audit Instruments (1)

Q48Easy
Which of the following instruments are correctly matched with their use in an Energy Audit?
1. Lux Meter: Measuring illumination levels.
2. Ultrasonic Flow Meter: Measuring liquid flow in pipes without cutting them.
3. Combustion Analyzer: Measuring the power factor of electric motors.
Select the correct answer:
View answer & solution
Correct answer: A. 1 and 2 only
Quick explanation

Energy management begins by establishing where and how energy is used. Energy intensity normalizes energy use by useful output, such as kWh per unit of production. Key relation: Energy intensity=energy consumed/useful production output.

Exam focus: Normalize energy use before comparing production periods. Common trap: A detailed audit is not just a more detailed desk review; it includes measurements.

Energy intensity=energy consumed/useful production output.
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Energy Audit › Audit Types and Metrics (1)

Q49Moderate
Regarding Energy Management and Audit, consider the following:
1. A "Preliminary Audit" uses existing data to establish energy consumption patterns.
2. A "Detailed Audit" involves the use of instruments to measure energy flow in specific equipment.
3. The "Energy Intensity" of a product is the ratio of total energy consumed to the total units of production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: C. 1, 2 and 3
Quick explanation

A preliminary/walk-through audit uses bills, production data and observations to identify major opportunities; a detailed audit adds instrumented measurements and engineering calculations. Energy intensity normalizes energy use by useful output, such as kWh per unit of production. Key relation: Energy intensity=energy consumed/useful production output.

Exam focus: Normalize energy use before comparing production periods. Common trap: A detailed audit is not just a more detailed desk review; it includes measurements.

Energy intensity=energy consumed/useful production output.
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Energy Audit › Payback Period (1)

Q50Moderate
Consider the following statements regarding the "Payback Period" in energy projects:
1. It is the time taken for the cumulative energy savings to equal the initial investment.
2. A shorter payback period indicates a more financially attractive project.
3. Simple Payback Period (SPP) accounts for the "Time Value of Money"Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: B. 1 and 2 only
Quick explanation

Simple payback is easy and useful for first screening, but it is not a complete profitability measure. Discounted payback, NPV and IRR address time value more explicitly. Key relation: If annual savings are uniform: SPP = Initial investment / Annual net savings. Discounted methods use PV = CF_t/(1+r)^t.

Exam focus: Whenever a question says “simple payback”, immediately remember “no time value of money”. Common trap: Confusing simple payback with discounted payback or NPV.

If annual savings are uniform: SPP = Initial investment / Annual net savings. Discounted methods use PV = CFt/(1+r)^t.
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Risk & Quality Management MCQs 3

Open Risk & Quality Management page →

Risk & Quality Management › Quality Control (1)

Q51Easy
What does the term “Quality Control” mean in the context of Industrial Engineering and Management?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: A. Maintaining product standards and consistency
Quick explanation

Quality control is the operational process of checking and controlling product/process output so specified standards are consistently met. It includes inspection, testing, statistical monitoring and corrective action.

standard/specification → measure output → compare → correct process/product
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Risk & Quality Management › Risk Response Strategies (1)

Q52Easy
Case Study: An agricultural business purchased insurance coverage to protect against crop failure due to adverse weather conditions. What risk reduction approach did the business adopt?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: A. Risk transfer
Quick explanation

A — Risk transfer. Buying crop insurance shifts the covered financial consequences of crop failure to the insurer under the policy terms.

KEY LOGIC: Insurance → contractual transfer of financial risk to an insurer.
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Risk & Quality Management › Risk-Benefit Analysis (1)

Q53Moderate
Which of the following statements are correct about the Risk Benefit Analysis?
I. An approach to balance potential benefits against potential risks.
II. If the potential benefits outweigh the potential risks, the decision should proceed without any further evaluation.
III. It helps in making informed decisions by evaluating both risks and benefits.
IV. It helps in maximization of potential risks.
View answer & solution
Correct answer: B. Statement I & III only correct
Quick explanation

B — Statements I and III only. Risk–benefit analysis compares potential benefits with risks to support an informed decision.

KEY LOGIC: Risk–benefit analysis = structured comparison of expected benefits versus potential risks to support an informed decision.
Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Smart Grid & Demand Side Management MCQs 1

Smart Grid & Demand Side Management › Demand Side Management (1)

Q54Easy
Regarding "Smart Grids" and Energy Conservation:
1. Smart meters allow for Time-of-Day (ToD) tariff implementation to manage peak loads.
2. They enable the integration of distributed renewable energy sources.
3. Demand Side Management (DSM) is a key feature of smart grid technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
View answer & solution
Correct answer: D. 1, 2 and 3
Quick explanation

A smart grid combines digital metering, communications, automation and distributed-energy integration. Smart meters enable interval data and time-of-day/time-of-use tariffs, while demand-side management shifts or reduces load during stressed periods. Key relation: DSM changes demand profile; ToD/ToU tariffs provide a time-varying price signal.

Exam focus: Smart metering is an enabler for tariffs and DSM, not just remote billing. Common trap: Do not separate distributed-energy integration from smart-grid functionality.

Verified · SRO editorial deskSolution page → Report

Energy Management & Electricity Laws MCQ FAQs

How many Energy Management & Electricity Laws MCQs are on SarkariResultOut?

54 previous year Energy Management & Electricity Laws questions across 8 topics, each with the exam it was asked in, the verified answer and a step-by-step solution.

Which exams asked these Energy Management & Electricity Laws questions?

GPSC DEE Electrical · DEE Master paper · 2026; GPSC AE Electrical · AE R&B · 2025 · Series M; Vidyut Sahayak JE · Second tier · 2024; GPSSB AAE Electrical · CBRT 2026 · Technical.

Can I download Energy Management & Electricity Laws MCQs as a PDF?

Yes. Tap “Download Energy Management & Electricity Laws PDF” — it is free after a quick sign-in and includes every answer and solution.