Live MCQ Practice Assistant Engineer (Electrical), Class-2, Road Master Question Paper (BPB) - Technical Section (Series M) 180 MCQs · Choose one option
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Which of the following is a correct representation of peak value in an AC circuit?
A RMS value/Peak factor
B RMS value*Form factor
C RMS value/Form factor
D RMS value*Peak factor
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · AC Fundamentals
What is the direction of the electric field at a point?
A Along the line perpendicular to the electric field
B Along the line tangent to the electric field
C Electric field has no direction
D Electric field has a random direction
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Electric Field
What is the number of primary turns in a 200/1000V transformer if the emf per turn is 10V?
A 5
B 10
C 20
D 40
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Transformers
How many electrons will constitute 2 Coulombs of electric charge?
A 6.24 × 10¹⁸ electrons
B 12.48 × 10¹⁸ electrons
C 1.602 × 10¹⁹ electrons
D 3.204 × 10¹⁹ electrons
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Electric Charge
How does induced emf in DC motor react to supply voltage?
A It will aid the supply voltage
B It will be double the supply voltage
C It will oppose the supply voltage
D It will be half of the supply voltage
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · DC Machines
How many cycles will an AC signal make in 2 seconds if its frequency is 100Hz?
A 50
B 100
C 150
D 200
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · AC Fundamentals
What will be the current density of a metal if a current of 30A is passed through a cross-sectional area of 0.5m2?
A 7.5 A/m2
B 15 A/m2
C 60 A/m2
D 120 A/m2
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Current and Current Density
A substance whose relative permeability is less than the permeability of free space is _____________.
A Diamagnetic
B Paramagnetic
C Ferromagnetic
D Not a magnetic substance
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Magnetic Materials
Diamagnetic substances have relative permeability _____________.
A Greater than 1
B Less than 1
C Equal to 1
D Zero
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Magnetic Materials
What happens to the MMF when the magnetic flux decreases?
A Increases
B Decreases
C Remains constant
D Becomes zero
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Magnetic Circuits
Can we apply Kirchhoff’s law to magnetic circuits?
A Yes
B No
C Depends on the circuit
D Insufficient information provided
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Magnetic Circuits
KCL is based on the fact that
A There is a possibility for a node to store energy
B There cannot be an accumulation of charge at a node
C Charge accumulation is possible at node
D Charge accumulation may or may not be possible
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Kirchhoff's Laws
Power dissipation in ideal inductor is
A Maximum
B Minimum
C Zero
D Finite value
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · AC Circuits
To obtain wide bandwidth, network is designed with which of the following?
A High Q factor
B Low Q factor
C Unity Q factor
D Zero Q factor
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Resonance
Find V_AB if i_AB = 5 A.
Original figure with safe white margins for complete visibility.
A 32.76V
B 35.56V
C 36.12V
D 34.21V
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Resistive Networks
Q16
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
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If 4 equations are required to describe a circuit by Mesh-Current method and there are n nodes, then how many branches are there in the network?
A n + 5
B n + 3
C n
D n − 1
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Graph Theory
In a delta-connected load, the relation between line voltage and the phase voltage is
A line voltage > phase voltage
B line voltage < phase voltage
C line voltage = phase voltage
D line voltage > = phase voltage
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Three-Phase Circuits
What is the relation between the unit impulse function and the unit ramp function?
A r = dd(t)/dt
B d = dr/dt
C δ(t) = d²r(t)/dt²
D r = d2(d)/dt2
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Elementary Signals
Q19
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
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Two coils having self-inductances of 1 mH and 2 mH are mutually coupled. The maximum possible mutual inductance is ___________
A 1.414 mH
B 2 mH
C 1 mH
D 5.5 mH
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Magnetic Coupling
A coil has resistance R and inductance L. At ω = ∞, the phase angle between voltage and current is _____________
A 0°
B 180°
C 45°
D 90°
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · AC Circuits
In the circuit shown below, find the Z-parameter Z₁₂.
Original figure with safe white margins for complete visibility.
A 15
B 10
C 5
D 1
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Two-Port Networks
Q22
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
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Electromagnetic torque in rotating electrical machinery is present when ________
A Both stator and rotor windings carry current
B Air gap is uniform
C Stator winding alone carries current
D Rotor winding alone carries current
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Electromechanical Energy Conversion
A 400-V, 1000-A, lap wound DC machine has 10 poles, 860 armature conductors. The number of conductors in the pole face to give full compensation if pole face covers 70% of pole span is
A 3010
B 4300
C 2400
D 2800
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · DC Machines
Q24
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
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_________ test is used for determining the efficiency of a traction motor.
A Hopkinson
B Retardation
C Field
D Swinburne
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · DC Motors
The air gap line represents _________
A Magnetic behaviour of the air gap of the DC machine
B Magnetic behaviour of the air gap of the induction machine
C Magnetic behaviour of the iron core
D All of the mentioned
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · DC Machines
The active power delivered by an alternator will _______ when the prime mover input is increased for the alternator connected to infinite bus bar.
A remain constant
B decrease
C increase
D no relation exists between the power and prime mover droop characteristic
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Synchronous Machines
Q27
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
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A synchronous machine has field winding on stator and polyphase armature winding on rotor. At steady state, which of the following is not true for its air gap field?
A Stationary w.r.t. stator
B Rotating at double the speed Ns w.r.t. rotor
C Rotating in direction opposite to rotor
D Rotating at Ns w.r.t. rotor
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Synchronous Machines
Q28
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
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These days alternators are designed to have larger air gaps for __________.
A Stable parallel operation
B Higher stability limit
C Sinusoidal mmf distribution
D All of the mentioned
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Synchronous Machines
An induction motor can be said analogous to _________
A Synchronous motor
B Transformer
C Universal motor
D Stepper motor
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Induction Motors
While conducting open circuit test and short circuit test on a transformer, status of low voltage and high voltage windings will be such that in ____________
A OC test − h.v. open, SC test − l.v. short-circuited
B OC test − l.v. open, SC test − h.v. short-circuited
C OC test − l.v. open, SC test − l.v. short-circuited
D OC test − h.v. open, SC test − h.v. short-circuited
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Transformers
A 2000/1000/500 three winding transformer is to be used as auto transformer with supply of 3000V. Two loads of 1050 kVA at 3500 V and other one at 180 kVA at 1000 V. The total kVA supplied will be
A 1230 kVA
B 1440 kVA
C 1680 kVA
D 1150 kVA
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Transformers
Q32
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
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Two single phase transformers A and B are operating in parallel having different impedance and identical x/r ratio. Then __________
A A has poorer pf than B
B B has poorer pf than B
C Lesser power factor angle
D Both operate at same power factor
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Transformers
A vector is said to be solenoidal when its
A Divergence is zero
B Divergence is unity
C Curl is zero
D Curl is unity
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Vector Calculus
Q34
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
Find the value of Stoke’s theorem for A = x i + y j + z k. The state of the function will be
A Solenoidal
B Divergent
C Rotational
D Curlfree
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Vector Calculus
Q35
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
Find the power, given energy E = 2J and current density J = x2 varies from x = 0 and x = 1.
A 1/3
B 2/3
C 1
D 4/3
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Energy and Power
Q36
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
Evaluate the surface integral ∫∫ (3x i + 2y j). dS, where S is the sphere given by x² + y² + z² = 9.
A 120 π
B 180 π
C 240 π
D 300 π
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Vector Calculus
Q37
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
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Three charged cylindrical sheets are present in three spaces with σ = 5 at R = 2m, σ = − 2 at R = 4m and σ = − 3 at R = 5m. Find the flux density at R = 3m.
A 3
B 10/3
C 11/3
D 4
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Gauss Law
Q38
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
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The continuity equation is a combination of which of the two laws?
A Ohm’s law and Gauss law
B Ampere law and Gauss law
C Ohm’s law and Ampere law
D Maxwell law and Ampere law
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Maxwell Equations
Calculate the potential of a metal plate of charge 28C and capacitance 12 mF.
A 3.33 k ohm
B 2.33 k ohm
C 3.33 M ohm
D 2.33 M ohm
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Electrostatics
Calculate the emf when the flux is given by 3sin t + 5cos t.
A 3cos t − 5sin t
B − 3cos t + 5sin t
C − 3sin t − 5cos t
D 3cos t + 5sin t
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Electromagnetic Induction
Q41
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
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Find the inductance of a coil with permeability 3.5, turns 100 and length 2m. Assume the area to be thrice the length.
A 131.94 mH
B 94.131 mH
C 131.94 H
D 94.131 H
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Magnetic Circuits
Calculate the conduction current density when the resistivity of a material with an electric field of 5 units is 4.5 units.
A 22.5
B 4.5/5
C 5/4.5
D 9.5
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Conduction and Current Density
When can one logic gate drive many other logic gates in Digital Electronics?
A When its output impedance is low and the input impedance is low
B When its output impedance is high and the input impedance is high
C When its output impedance is high and the input impedance is low
D When its output impedance is low and the input impedance is high
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Logic Families
Q44
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
Which of these error-detecting codes enables to find double errors in Digital Electronic devices?
A Parity method
B Checksum method
C Bit generation method
D Odd-Even method
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Digital Codes
If A and B are the inputs of a half adder, then the sum is given by __________
A A AND B
B A OR B
C A XOR B
D A EX-NOR B
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Combinational Logic
The systematic reduction of logic circuits is accomplished by _______________
A Symbolic reduction
B TTL logic
C Using Boolean algebra
D Using a truth table
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Boolean Algebra
How many inputs are required for a 1-of-10 BCD decoder?
A 4
B 8
C 10
D 2
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Combinational Logic
What is the maximum possible range of bit-count specifically in n-bit binary counter consisting of ‘n’ number of flip-flops?
A 0 to 2n
B 0 to 2n + 1
C 0 to 2n − 1
D 0 to 2n+1/2
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Sequential Logic
A 12 MHz clock frequency is applied to a cascaded counter containing a modulus-5 counter, a modulus-8 counter and a modulus-10 counter. The lowest output frequency possible is ________
A 10 kHz
B 20 kHz
C 30 kHz
D 60 kHz
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Sequential Logic
A 4-bit ripple counter consists of flip-flops, where each have a propagation delay from clock to Q output of 15 ns. For the counter to recycle from 1111 to 0000, it takes a total of ________
A 15 ns
B 30 ns
C 45 ns
D 60 ns
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Sequential Logic
Q51
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
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A bidirectional 4-bit shift register is storing the nibble 1110. Its input is LOW. The nibble 0111 is waiting to be entered on the serial data-input line. After two clock pulses, the shift register is storing ________
A 1110
B 0111
C 1011
D 1001
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Sequential Logic
Q52
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The group of bits 10110111 is serially shifted (rightmost bit first) into an 8-bit parallel output shift register with an initial state 11110000. After two clock pulses, the register contains ____________
A 10111000
B 10110111
C 11110000
D 11111100
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Sequential Logic
Q53
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The output frequency related to the sampling interval of a frequency counter as _____________
A Directly with the sampling interval
B Inversely with the sampling interval
C More precision with longer sampling interval
D Less precision with longer sampling interval
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Digital Measurement
Which type of device may be used to interface a parallel data format with external equipment’s serial format?
A UART
B Key matrix
C Memory chip
D Series in Parallel out
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Data Communication Interfaces
A 4-bit shift register that receives 4 bits of parallel data will shift to the ________ by ________ position for each clock pulse.
A Right, one
B Right, two
C Left, one
D Left, three
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Sequential Logic
In the case of two-transistor model (T1 & T2) of GTO with anode−short, the anode−short is placed between the
A emitter of T1 and T2
B emitter of T1 and base of T2
C emitter of T1 and base of T1
D emitter of T1 and collector of T2
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Thyristor Devices
A step-down delta-star transformer, with per-phase turns ration of 5, is fed from a 3-phase, 1100 V, 50 Hz source. The secondary of this transformer through a 3-pulse type rectifier feeds a R load of 10 Ω. Find the maximum value of the load current (phase).
A √2 × 22 A
B 1 × 11 A
C √2 × 11 A
D 1 × 22 A
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Rectifiers
Q58
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
In non-circulating current mode dual converters, the circulating current is avoided by
A Connecting a series reactor
B Maintaining α1 + α2 = 180°
C Operating only one converter
D Adding an extra SCR
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Converters
In the single−pulse width modulation method, the output voltage waveform is symmetrical about ____________ in the negative half cycle.
A 2π
B 3π/2
C π/2
D 3π/4
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Inverters
Q60
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
In the case of a single−pulse width modulation with the pulse width = 2d, to eliminate the nth harmonic from the output voltage
A d = π
B 2d = π
C nd = π
D nd = 2π
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Inverters
The AC voltage controllers are used in __________ applications.
A Power generation
B Electric heating
C Conveyor belt motion
D Power transmission
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · AC Voltage Controllers
Q62
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
In a N-stage sequence controller, each secondary is rated for __________
A n × Vs
B Vs
C Vs/n
D Vs × (n − 1)
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · High Voltage Generation
The single−phase mid-point type cycloconverter uses __________ number of SCRs.
A 4
B 8
C 6
D 2
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Cycloconverters
Two six pulse converters used for bipolar HVDC transmission system are rated at 1000 MW, ± 200 kV. What is the DC transmission voltage?
A 200 kV
B 400 kV
C 500 kV
D 100 kV
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · HVDC Transmission
A single−phase AC switch is used in between a 230 V source and load of 2 kW and 0.8 lagging power factor. Determine the rms current rating required by the SCR. Use the factor of safety = 2.
A 10.87 A
B 87 A
C 21.74 A
D 32 A
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · AC Controllers
Q66
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
Choose the incorrect statement.
A SMPS is less sensitive to input voltage variations
B SMPS is smaller as compared to rectifiers
C SMPS has low input ripple
D SMPS is a source of radio interference
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Switched Mode Power Supplies
Q67
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
Which of the following signals is monotonic?
A x(t) = t³− 2t
B x(t) = sin(t)
C x(t) = sin²(2t) + cos²(2t) − 2t
D x(t) = log(cos(t))
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Signal Classification
When is x(t) said to be non-periodic signal?
A If the equation x (t) = x (t + T) is satisfied for all values of T
B If the equation x (t) = x (t + T) is satisfied for only one value of T
C If the equation x (t) = x (t + T) is satisfied for no values of T
D If the equation x (t) = x (t + T) is satisfied for only odd values of T
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Signal Classification
Determine the discrete−time signal: x(n) = 1 for n ≥ 0 and x(n) = 0 for n < 0.
A Unit ramp sequence
B Unit impulse sequence
C Exponential sequence
D Unit step sequence
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Discrete-Time Signals
Q70
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
For what values of k is the following system stable, y = (k² − 3k − 4)log(x) + sin(x)?
A k = 1, 4
B k = 2, 3
C k = 5, 4
D k = 4, − 1
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Systems
A 440 V, 50 Hz AC source supplies a series LCR circuit with a capacitor and a coil. If the coil has 100 mΩ resistance and 15 mH inductance, then at a resonance frequency of 50 Hz, the half power frequencies of the circuit are ______________
A 50.53 Hz, 49.57 Hz
B 52.12 Hz, 49.8 Hz
C 55.02 Hz, 48.95 Hz
D 50 Hz, 49 Hz
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · RLC Circuits
A signal e^(−at) sin (ωt) is the input to a real linear time invariant system. Given K and ∅ are constants, the output of the system will be of the form Ke^(−bt) sin (vt + ∅). The correct statement among the following is __________
A b need not be equal to a but v must be equal to ω
B v need not be equal to ω but b must be equal to a
C b must be equal to a and v must be equal to ω
D b need not be equal to a and v need not be equal to ω
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · LTI Systems
Q73
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
A periodic square wave is formed by rectangular pulses ranging from −1 to +1 and period = 2 units. The ratio of the power in the 7th harmonic to the power in the 5th harmonic for this waveform is equal to ____________
A 1
B 0.5
C 2
D 2.5
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Fourier Series
Q74
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
When is Fourier convergence theorem applicable?
A Infinite series limit
B Continuous function limit
C Discrete function limit
D Break point limits
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Fourier Series
Which of the following waves has the highest value of peak factor?
A Square wave
B Sine wave
C Half wave rectified sine wave
D Triangular wave
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Waveform Parameters
Time constant of an inductive circuit
A increases with the increase of inductance and the decrease of resistance
B increases with the increase of inductance and the increase of resistance
C increases with the decrease of inductance and the decrease of resistance
D increases with the decrease of inductance and the increase of resistance
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · First-Order Circuits
Q77
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The impulse response of an LTI system which is continuous is H (t) = e−|t|. The system is ___________
A Causal and stable
B Causal but not stable
C Stable but not causal
D Neither causal nor stable
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · LTI Systems
Q78
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
Form factor is equal to peak factor in the case of
A Square wave
B Triangle wave
C Saw tooth wave
D Sinusoidal wave
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Waveform Parameters
Which of the following reactances is eliminated first in synchronous generator just after the symmetrical fault?
A Leakage reactance
B Damper winding reactance
C Armature winding reactance
D Field winding reactance
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Fault Analysis
A transmission line Z = (2 + j8) Ω has 10% of the voltage regulation with the lagging load of 0.8. If the load is 0.707 leading, then the V.R. is ________ (Assume the current is same in both cases)
A − 6.63%
B − 5.77%
C − 10%
D − 8.63%
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Transmission Lines
An open pipe resonates with a tuning fork of frequency 500 Hz. It is observed that two successive nodes are formed at distances 16 cm and 46 cm from the open end. The speed of sound in air in the pipe is
A 230 m/s
B 300 m/s
C 320 m/s
D 360 m/s
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Waves and Acoustics
A three−phase transformer having a line voltage ratio of 400/33000 V is connected in the star-delta. The CTs on the 400V side have a CT ratio of 1000/5. What must be the ratio of CTs on the 33000 side?
A 7/5
B 5/7
C 3/5
D 5/2
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Protection
The neutral of the three phase 20 MVA, 11 kV alternator is earthed through a resistance of 5 ohms. The relay is set to operate when there is an out of balance current of 1.5 A. The CTs have a ratio of 100/5. What should be the minimum value of the earthing resistance to protect 90% of winding?
A 1.12 Ω
B 2.12 Ω
C 4.24 Ω
D 3.24 Ω
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Protection
Q84
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
A single−phase motor is connected to 400V, 50Hz supply. The motor draws a current of 31.7A at a power factor 0.7 lag. The additional reactive power (in VAR) to be supplied by the capacitor bank will be ___________
A 4756
B 4873
C 4299
D 9055.3
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Power Factor Correction
Q85
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
An isolated generator is connected to a turbine with its continuous maximum power of 20 MW, 50 Hz. Generator is connected with two loads of 8 MW, each operates at 50 Hz. Generator has 5% droop characteristic. If an additional load of 6 MW is added, then frequency will be ___________
A 40.75
B 48.75
C 49.75
D 50.25
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Load Frequency Control
If all the sequence voltages at the fault point in a power system are equal, then fault is __________
A LLG fault
B LG fault
C Three phase to ground fault
D Line to Line fault
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Fault Analysis
Q87
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The characteristic equation of a control system is given by s(s + 4)(s² + 2s + s) + k(s + 1) = 0. What are the angles of the asymptotes for the root loci?
A 0°, 180°, 300°
B 0°, 120°, 240°
C 60°, 180°, 300°
D 120°, 180°, 240°
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Root Locus
The unit step response of a second order system is = 1 − e^(−5t) − 5t e^(−5t). Consider the following statements: 1. The under damped natural frequency is 5 rad/s. 2. The damping ratio is 1. 3. The impulse response is 25t e^(−5t). Which of the statements given above are correct?
A Only 1 and 2
B Only 2 and 3
C Only 1 and 3
D 1, 2 and 3
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Second-Order Systems
Q89
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
Assertion (A): A PI controller increases the order of the system by units but decreases the steady state error. Reason (R): A PI controller introduces a pole at either the origin or at a desired points on the negative real axis.
A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B Both (A) and (R) true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C (A) is true but (R) is false
D (A) is false but (R) is true
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Controllers
Q90
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
Assertion (A): Routh criterion is in terms of array formulation which is more convenient to handle. Reason (R): This method is used to investigate the method of stability of higher order systems.
A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C (A) is true but (R) is false
D (A) is false but (R) is true
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Stability
The auto-correlation function of a rectangular pulse of duration T is
A A rectangular pulse of duration T
B A rectangular pulse of duration 2T
C A triangular pulse of duration T
D A triangular pulse of duration 2T
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Signals and Systems
Q92
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The method of investigating the stability using Liapunov function is _____________
A The direct method
B The indirect method
C Not determined
D Always unstable
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Nonlinear Control
For a unity feedback system, the open loop transfer function is G(s) = K(s + 2)/s² (s² + 7s + 12). What is the type of system?
A One
B Two
C Three
D Four
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Steady-State Error
What is the response of the feedback function with open loop transfer function G(s) = 4/s(s + 5) and input is input step?
A 1 − 1/3(4e^(−t) − e^(−4t))
B 1 − 1/2(6e^(−t) − e^(−4t))
C 1 − 1/3(6e^(−t) − e^(−4t))
D 1 − 1/2(4e^(−t) − e^(4t))
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Time Response
The open loop transfer function for a unit feedback system is G(s) = K/s(sT + 1). By what factor the amplitude gain K should be reduced so that the peak overshoot becomes 25% from 75%?
A 75
B 25
C 20
D 10
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Transient Response
What is the need for a controller?
A Receive control signals
B Transmit control signals
C Modify control signals
D Create control signals
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Controllers
What is the vectored address of RST-5?
A 0010 H
B 0032 H
C 0028 H
D 0030 H
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · 8085 Microprocessor
DAA instruction is used to perform which type of addition?
A BCD addition
B Excess-3 addition
C Binary addition
D Octal addition
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · 8085 Microprocessor
In the I/O mode, the 8255 ports work as
A Reset pins
B Set pins
C Programmable I/O ports
D Only output ports
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · 8255 PPI
Q100
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
If the value of the pin STB (Strobe Input) falls to low level, then
A Input port is loaded into input latches
B Input port is loaded into output latches
C Output port is loaded into input latches
D Output port is loaded into output latches
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · 8255 PPI
Q101
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
When a stack segment is initialised, then
A SS and SP are initialised
B Only SS is initialised
C Only SP is initialised
D SS and SP need not be initialised
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · 8086 Microprocessor
Q102
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
In mode 2, if N is loaded as the count value, then after (N − 1) cycles, the output becomes low for
A 1 clock cycle
B 2 clock cycles
C 3 clock cycles
D 4 clock cycles
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · 8253/8254 Timer
Q103
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
If the zeroth condition is satisfied then, for execution, the JNZ instruction takes
A 1 clock cycle
B 2 clock cycles
C 3 clock cycles
D 4 clock cycles
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Microprocessor Instructions
Q104
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The pin that clears the command, request and temporary registers and internal first/last flipflop when it is set is
A CLEAR
B SET
C HLDA
D RESET
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · DMA Controller
Q105
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The complete software system is divided into
A Main program
B Interrupt routine IRT2 for first subprocessing the unit
C Interrupt routine IRT3 for first subprocessing the unit
D All of the mentioned
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Real-Time Software
Q106
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The highest priority usage than any other usage is
A Transfer with LOCK (active low) signal
B Hold request
C Processor extension data transfer
D Data transfer performed by EU (execution unit)
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · 8086/80286 Bus
Q107
Hard 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
A valid HOLD request is ascertained only after the completion of
A 34 clock cycles
B 24 clock cycles and 80286 is SET
C 34 clock cycles and 80286 is SET
D 34 clock cycles and 80286 is RESET
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · 80286 Microprocessor
Q108
Hard 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The number of idle states (Ti), that is allowed between two INTA cycles, to meet the 8259A speed and cascade address output delay is
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · 8259A PIC
Q109
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
HVDC LCCs have ______________
A 1 degree of freedom
B 2 degrees of freedom
C 5 degrees of freedom
D Many degrees of freedom
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · HVDC Transmission
Q110
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
Efficient LCC HVDC converters generally use __________
A thyristor
B mercury valves
C diodes
D mechanical switches
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · HVDC Transmission
Q111
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
Which insulating material is commonly used in high voltage cables?
A XLPE (Cross-linked polyethylene)
B PVC (Polyvinyl chloride)
C Wood
D Rubber
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · High Voltage Engineering
Q112
Hard 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
How the sag at higher stages can be reduced in a voltage multiplier circuit?
A By decreasing the capacitance in the higher stages
B By decreasing the capacitance in the lower stages
C By increasing the capacitance in the higher stages
D By increasing the capacitance in the lower stages
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · High Voltage Engineering
Q113
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
__________ is the normal length of the cable sample used for testing.
A 1 - 50 cm
B 50cm - 10 m
C 10 - 100 m
D Above 100 m
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · High Voltage Engineering
Q114
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
__________ finds the deterioration or failure due to internal discharges caused in the insulation of bushing.
A Power-factor voltage test
B Internal or partial discharge test
C Visible discharge test
D Momentary withstand test
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · High Voltage Engineering
Q115
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
RMS value is defined based on which of the following?
A Heating effect
B Charge transfer
C Current
D Voltage
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · AC Fundamentals
Q116
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
A physical system of electromechanical energy conversion consists of a stationary part creating a magnetic field with electric energy input, and a moving part giving mechanical energy output. If the movable part is kept fixed, the entire electrical energy input will be _______
A Stored in the magnetic field
B Stored in the electric field
C Divided equally between the magnetic and electric fields
D Zero
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Electromechanical Energy Conversion
Q117
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
Which of the following has the highest operating cost?
A Hydroelectric power plant
B Thermal power plant
C Nuclear power plant
D Solar electric power plant
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Power Plant Economics
Q118
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
Which of the following represents the annual average load?
A (kWh supplied in a day) / 24
B {(kWh supplied in a day) / 24} × 365
C {(kWh supplied in a month) / (30 × 24)
D (kWh supplied in a year) / (24 × 365)
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Load Curves and Tariffs
Q119
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
Which of the following is called as cold reserve?
A Reserve capacity available but not ready for use
B Reserve capacity available and ready for use
C Generating capacity connected to bus and ready to take load
D Capacity in service in excess of peak load
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Power System Operation
Q120
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
When the momentum of a body is doubled, its kinetic energy ___________
A Remains the same
B Drops to zero
C Becomes four times its initial kinetic energy
D Becomes ten times its kinetic energy
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Engineering Mechanics
Q121
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
In a thermal power station, coal is used for the generation of electricity. How energy changes from one form to another before it is transformed into electrical energy?
A Heat energy → Mechanical energy → Electrical energy
B Heat energy → Electrical energy → Mechanical energy
C Mechanical energy → Heat energy → Electrical energy
D Electrical energy → Heat energy → Mechanical energy
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Thermal Power Plants
Q122
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
What is the primary function of a boiler in a steam power plant?
A To convert mechanical energy into electrical energy
B To convert water into steam
C To cool down the steam
D To increase the pressure of the steam
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Steam Power Plants
Q123
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
What is the purpose of a condenser in a steam power plant?
A To convert steam back into water
B To increase the temperature of the steam
C To generate electricity
D To control the speed of turbine
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Steam Power Plants
Q124
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
Which of the following is NOT a type of fuel used in a steam power plant?
A Coal
B Natural gas
C Uranium
D Oil
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Steam Power Plants
Q125
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
What is the efficiency of a typical steam power plant?
A 10-20%
B 30-40%
C 50-60%
D 70-80%
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Steam Power Plants
Q126
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
What is the function of a cooling tower in a steam power plant?
A To cool down the steam
B To cool down the water from the condenser
C To generate electricity
D To control the pressure of the steam
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Steam Power Plants
Q127
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
A new renewable energy system is designed to harvest energy from wind. The total energy required to build the system is 240 kJ. The energy yield ratio of the system is 14:3. What will be the total energy provided by the system over its lifetime?
A 1,120 kJ
B 18,000 kJ
C 2,258 kJ
D 54,000 kJ
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Renewable Energy
Q128
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
Which of the following is the 7th goal of the eight millennium goals of United Nations?
A To eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
B To ensure environment sustainability
C To reduce child mortality
D To develop a global partnership for development
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Sustainable Development
Q129
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
What is the aim of Paris Agreement in 2015? (Note : C indicates Celsius)
A To keep the decrease in global average temperature to below 2 degree C
B To keep the decrease in global average temperature to above 2 degree C
C To keep the increase in global average temperature to above 2 degree C
D To keep the increase in global average temperature to below 2 degree C
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Climate Policy
Q130
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
On what does the energy consumption in Indian transport sector depend?
A Fuel price
B Driver
C Ergonomics
D Fuel tank
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Transport Energy
Q131
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
What is Sun’s declination angle during summer solstice?
A 23.5 degrees
B 0.53 degrees
C 32 minutes
D − 23.5 degrees
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Solar Energy
Q132
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
What does the term “Quality Control” mean in the context of Industrial Engineering and Management?
A Maintaining product standards and consistency
B Financial risk analysis
C Ensuring employee satisfaction
D Monitoring production costs
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Quality Management
Q133
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The primary objective of the __________ is to consolidate the laws relating to the generation, transmission, distribution, trading and use of electricity in India.
A Energy Conservation Act, 2001
B Electricity Act, 2003
C Indian Electricity Rules, 1956
D IS 3043
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Electricity Legislation
Q134
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The Indian Standard code of practice for earthing is specified in __________.
A IS 732
B IS 3043
C IS 1956
D IS 2001
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Indian Standards
Q135
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The policy specifically addressing power generation from municipal solid waste in Gujarat is the __________.
A Gujarat Solar Power Policy-2021
B Gujarat Renewable Energy Policy-2023
C Gujarat Waste to Energy Policy-2022
D Gujarat Small Hydel Policy-2016
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Renewable Energy Policy
Q136
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The __________ provides for the efficient use of energy and its conservation in India.
A Electricity Act, 2003
B Gujarat Electricity Industry Act, 2003
C Energy Conservation Act, 2001
D Indian Electricity Rules, 1956
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Energy Legislation
Q137
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The Indian Standard, IS 732 provides the code of practice for __________.
A Electrical wiring installations
B Earthing systems
C Solar panel manufacturing
D Wind turbine installation
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Indian Standards
Q138
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
A key function of an Electricity Regulatory Commission is the determination of __________.
A Fuel import quotas
B Political election dates
C Tariffs for electricity
D Manufacturing subsidies
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Electricity Regulation
Q139
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The Gujarat Wind Power Policy was established in the year __________.
A 2016
B 2018
C 2021
D 2023
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Renewable Energy Policy
Q140
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The Gujarat Solar Power Policy mentioned in the list was released in __________.
A 2016
B 2019
C 2021
D 2022
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Renewable Energy Policy
Q141
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
A primary goal of a Wind Solar Hybrid Power Policy is to __________.
A Promote coal-based power plants
B Encourage the separate development of wind and solar farms
C Optimize land and grid infrastructure by combining wind and solar generation
D Phase out all renewable energy
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Renewable Energy Policy
Q142
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The Gujarat Electricity Industry (Reorganization & Regulation) Act was enacted in the year __________.
A 2001
B 1956
C 2003
D 2016
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Electricity Legislation
Q143
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The Star Labeling Program for appliances, indicating energy efficiency, is a key initiative under the __________.
A Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)
B Gujarat Energy Development Agency (GEDA)
C Central Electricity Authority (CEA)
D Indian Standards Institution (ISI)
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Energy Efficiency
Q144
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The Gujarat Small Hydel Policy of 2016 typically applies to hydroelectric projects with a station capacity upto __________.
A 10 MW
B 25 MW
C 50 MW
D 100 MW
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Renewable Energy Policy
Q145
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
According to IS 3043, the resistance of an earth connection for a large power station should be as low as possible, ideally not exceeding __________.
A 0.5 Ω
B 2.0 Ω
C 5.0 Ω
D 10.0 Ω
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Indian Standards
Q146
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The establishment of the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity (APTEL) was mandated by the __________.
A Indian Electricity Rules, 1956
B Energy Conservation Act, 2001
C Electricity Act, 2003
D IS 732
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Electricity Legislation
Q147
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
As per IS 732, the colour code for the earth wire in a flexible cable is __________.
A Red
B Black
C Green
D Blue
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Indian Standards
Q148
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The Gujarat Renewable Energy Policy of 2023 was introduced to supersede previous policies and attract __________ in the RE sector.
A Foreign tourists
B Massive investments
C Agricultural workers
D IT companies
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Renewable Energy Policy
Q149
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The Indian Electricity Rules of 1956 were largely focused on ensuring __________ in the electricity sector.
A Profitability
B Safety and supply standards
C Competition
D Privatization
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Electricity Legislation
Q150
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC) was launched by the __________ to set energy performance standards for new commercial buildings.
A Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)
B Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
C Gujarat RERA
D GEDA
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Energy Efficiency
Q151
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The Gujarat Wind Power Policy of 2016 included provisions for the 'repowering' of older, less efficient __________.
A Solar panels
B Wind turbines
C Hydro plants
D Transformers
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Renewable Energy Policy
Q152
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The primary purpose of equipment earthing as per IS 3043 is to __________.
A Improve the power factor
B Provide a safe path for leakage/fault current to flow
C Stabilize the system frequency
D Reduce the electricity bill
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Earthing and Safety
Q153
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The term period of the Gujarat Solar Power Policy, 2021 is __________.
A 2 years
B 3 years
C 5 years
D 10 years
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Renewable Energy Policy
Q154
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The policy that allows for setting up wind and solar projects at the same location to save land and transmission infrastructure is the __________.
A Gujarat Small Hydel Policy, 2016
B Gujarat Wind Solar Hybrid Power Policy, 2018-19
C Gujarat Waste to Energy Policy, 2022
D Gujarat Solar Power Policy, 2021
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Renewable Energy Policy
Q155
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
As per IS 732, a leakage current in an installation should not exceed __________ of the full load current.
A 1/500th
B 1/1000th
C 1/5000th
D 1/100th
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Indian Standards
Q156
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The creation of a National Load Despatch Centre and Regional Load Despatch Centres is mandated by the __________.
A Energy Conservation Act, 2001
B Electricity Act, 2003
C Indian Electricity Rules, 1956
D IS 3043
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Electricity Legislation
Q157
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The main objective of the Gujarat Electricity Industry (Reorganization & Regulation) Act, 2003 was aligned with the national policy of __________.
A Increasing coal imports
B Power sector reforms
C Banning all private players
D Nationalizing all power plants
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Electricity Legislation
Q158
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The 'Perform, Achieve and Trade' (PAT) scheme is a market-based mechanism to improve energy efficiency in large industries and is a part of the __________.
A Electricity Act, 2003
B National Action Plan on Climate Change (under BEE)
C Gujarat Waste to Energy Policy
D Indian Electricity Rules, 1956
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Energy Efficiency
Q159
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The Gujarat Energy Development Agency (GEDA) is primarily focused on __________.
A Regulating electricity tariffs
B Promoting energy conservation and renewable energy
C Operating large thermal power plants
D Managing the state's power grid
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Renewable Energy Institutions
Q160
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
In an electromechanical lift system, what is the primary function of the governor?
A To open and close the doors
B To indicate the floor number
C To activate the safety brake in case of overspeeding
D To control the lift's interior lighting
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Vertical Transportation
Q161
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
What is the typical angle of inclination for a commercial escalator as per general safety standards?
A 15 degrees
B 30 degrees
C 45 degrees
D 60 degrees
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Vertical Transportation
Q162
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
Which component in a central air conditioning system is responsible for removing heat from the refrigerant?
A Evaporator
B Compressor
C Expansion valve
D Condenser
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · HVAC
Q163
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
As per NBC 2016, which of the following is considered an essential load that must be connected to an emergency power system?
A General office workstations
B Water coolers
C Fire pumps and fire alarms
D Decorative lighting
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Building Safety
Q164
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The 'cone of protection' method, specified in lightning protection standards, is used to determine the area protected by a
A Surge protector
B Lightning rod (air terminal)
C Grounding wire
D Fuse
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Lightning Protection
Q165
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
What is the main purpose of a Diesel Generator (DG) set in a commercial building?
A To reduce the daily electricity bill
B To provide primary power to the entire building
C To act as a backup power source during a grid outage
D To power only the HVAC system
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Standby Power
Q166
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
What is the primary function of an RCCB (Residual Current Circuit Breaker) in an electrical system?
A To protect against over-voltage
B To protect against short circuits
C To protect against high-frequency noise
D To protect humans from electric shock due to earth faults
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Electrical Protection
Q167
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
Which system is considered the central 'brain' for controlling and monitoring a building's mechanical and electrical equipment such as ventilation, lighting and power systems?
A CCTV System
B Public Address System
C Building Management System (BMS)
D Fire Alarm System
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Building Automation
Q168
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
Which of the following is typically NOT controlled by a building's Audio-Video (AV) system?
A Projectors and screens in a conference room
B Background music system
C Video conferencing equipment
D The building's fire hydrant pressure
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · ELV Systems
Q169
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
In computer networking, which topology involves connecting all devices in a circular fashion?
A Star
B Bus
C Ring
D Mesh
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Computer Networking
Q170
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
What is a key area of focus introduced in the National Electrical Code (NEC) of India, 2023?
A Phasing out all incandescent lighting
B Mandating specific brands of wires
C Regulations for electrical vehicle charging infrastructure
D Prohibiting the use of aluminium wiring
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Electrical Codes
Q171
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
What is the main function of a Manual Call Point (MCP) in a fire alarm system?
A To automatically detect smoke
B To allow a person to manually trigger the fire alarm
C To silence the alarm after an incident
D To test the sprinkler system
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Fire Alarm Systems
Q172
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
Which lamp technology is currently the most energy-efficient and widely adopted for new street lighting projects?
A High-Pressure Sodium (HPS)
B Mercury Vapor
C Metal Halide
D Light Emitting Diode (LED)
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Lighting
Q173
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
In street lighting, the term 'luminaire' refers to
A Only the light bulb or lamp
B The supporting pole
C The complete lighting fixture including the lamp, housing and reflector
D The underground electrical cable
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Lighting
Q174
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
Which type of pump is most commonly used for boosting water pressure in the water supply systems of tall buildings?
A Reciprocating pump
B Submersible pump
C Centrifugal pump
D Diaphragm pump
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Water Supply Systems
Q175
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
What does the 'total head' of a pump represent?
A The pump's physical size
B The rotational speed of the motor
C The total height to which a pump can move water, accounting for friction losses
D The volume of water it can move per minute
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Pumps
Q176
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
Wide−Bandgap (WBG) semiconductors like Gallium Nitride (GaN) are becoming popular in power electronics primarily because they offer _________
A Lower cost than silicon
B Higher efficiency and smaller size for power converters
C Easier manufacturing processes
D Better performance at very low temperatures
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Semiconductor Devices
Q177
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
The principle of operation for most common wireless charging pads for mobile devices is based on
A Static electricity
B Electromagnetic induction
C Solar radiation
D Piezoelectric effect
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Emerging Electrical Technologies
Q178
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
In a traction lift, what is the function of the counterweight?
A It acts as an emergency brake
B It balances the weight of the lift car and a portion of its load to save energy
C It houses the lift control panel
D It generates electricity for the lift
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · Vertical Transportation
Q179
Easy 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
A Variable Air Volume (VAV) system in HVAC is designed to
A Vary the temperature of the air while keeping the flow constant
B Vary the airflow to a zone based on its temperature needs
C Vary the humidity of the air supply
D Only operate at two speeds, high and low
Next MCQ ↓ Electrical Engineering · HVAC
Q180
Moderate 2025 ✓ Verified
↗
For a balanced three phase, three wire system with input power of 10 kW at 0.9 power factor, the readings on both wattmeter are _________ respectively
A 7 kW, 3 kW
B 5000 W, 5000 W
C 7600 W, 1200 W
D 6350 W, 3650 W
Electrical Engineering · Three-Phase Circuits