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Q1
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Which chapter of Gujarat Electricity (Reorganization and Regulation) Act, 2003 deals with licensing of transmission and supply of electricity?
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Q2
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Which of the following statement is correct?
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Q3
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Which year’s electricity Act aimed to bring revolution in India’s power sector, ensuring efficient and environmentally benign policies?
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Q4
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Minimum standard of efficiency of split air conditioner upto 10 kWr cooling capacity in a ECBC building is
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Q5
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When the rate of electrical energy is charged on the basis of maximum demand of the consumer and the units consumed, it is called a
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Q6
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As per CoP26 (26th United Nations Climate Change Conference) held in Gasglow, 2021, how much % of cumulative installed capacity from non-fossil energy sources, India has committed to achieve by 2030?
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Q7
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Objective of energy management and audit in a business enterprise includes which of the following? 1. Minimizing cost of energy consumption 2. Minimizing the waste of energy 3. Scaling harmful impacts of pollution on health 4. Minimizing environmental degradation Select the correct option:
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Q8
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In a power flow study of a big power system, the YBUS matrix is
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Q9
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Which of the following is not an advantage of HVDC transmission?
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Q10
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The rate of rise of restriking voltage (RRRV) is dependent on
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Q11
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The use of high-speed circuit breakers is
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Q12
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The line currents of a 3-phase power supply are I = 3 + j5 A, I = 2 + j2 A, I = – 2 – j1 A R Y B The zero sequence current will be:
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Q13
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Match List-I (Equipment) with List-II (Application) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I List-II a. Metal oxide arrester 1. Protects generator against short circuit faults b. Isolator 2. Improves transient stability c. Auto-recloser 3. Allows circuit breaker maintenance d. Differential relay 4. Provides protection against surges Codes: a b c d
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Q14
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The main objective of load frequency control is to regulate
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Q15
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The incremental costs of two generators supplying total load of 200 MW are dFA dFB = 2.0 + 0.01PA and = 1.6 + 0.02 PB dPA dPB For economical operation, the generator outputs PA, PB should be ________ respectively.
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Q16
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Why is a ring distribution system preferred to a radial system? 1. Voltage drop in the feeder is less in ring distribution system 2. Power factor is higher in ring distribution system 3. Supply is more reliable in ring distribution system Select the correct option:
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Q17
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An overhead transmission line has inductance of 0.9 mH/km and capacitance of 10 nF/km. The surge impedance of the line will be
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Q18
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On what basis is the insulation level of a 400 kV EHV overhead transmission line is decided?
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Q19
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How many relays are required to detect inter-phase fault of a three-line system?
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Q20
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Consider following statements: Assertion: When a line-to-line (L-L) fault takes place at the terminals of an open-circuited generator, the phase voltages are sometimes indeterminate though line voltages are always determinable. Reason: During L-L fault, a zero-sequence voltage is always indeterminate. Of these statements:
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Q21
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In an interconnected power system, the most suitable power plant to use in the peak load conditions is
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Q22
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The daily energy produced by a power generating station is 720 MWh at a load factor of 0.6. What is the maximum demand of the station?
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Q23
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Match List-I (Classification of head) with List-II (Type of turbine) in regards to hydropower plants and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List-I List-II a. Low head, 2-15 m 1. Pelton b. Medium head, 16-70 m 2. Francis or Pelton c. High head, 71-500 m 3. Kaplan or Francis d. Very high head, >500 m 4. Propeller or Kaplan Codes: a b c d
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Q24
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On which cycle does a steam power plant work?
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Q25
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The per-unit impedance of a power system component is 0.25. If the base kV and base MVA are halved, then the new value of the per-unit impedance will be
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Q26
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A triangular mmf wave is produced in the air-gap by
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Q27
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The speed control of a dc shunt motor in both directions can be obtained by
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Q28
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Consider the following statements: Assertion: The no-load current of an induction motor is usually more than that of a transformer of similar rating. Reason: An induction motor can be considered as a generalized transformer. Of these statements:
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Q29
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In a split-phase motor, the running winding (in comparison to auxiliary winding) should have
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Q30
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In a synchronous machine, ‘V’ curves present the variation of
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Q31
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The main advantage of distributing the winding of a synchronous generator in slots is to
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Q32
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A coil having 1000 turns is wound on a core. The flow of 1 A current through the coil produces 1 mWb flux in the core. What will be the energy stored in the magnetic field?
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Q33
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A 220 V, 6-pole, 50 Hz, single-phase induction motor runs at 950 rpm. Its slip with respect to backward rotating field will be
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Q34
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Consider the following statements: Assertion: Single-phase induction motor is not self-starting. Reason: Net rotating magnetic field produced by single-phase winding at standstill is zero. Of these statements:
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Q35
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In a rotating electromechanical machine, the torque developed depends on
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Q36
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Consider the following statements: EMF induced per phase in an alternator depends on 1. Frequency 2. Number of turns per phase 3. Pitch factor 4. Distribution factor Select the correct option:
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Q37
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Which of the following method can be used to control the reactive power output of a synchronous generator?
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Q38
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Which of the following is not a necessary condition for synchronizing an incoming alternator to an already operating alternator?
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Q39
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The frequency of rotor EMF of a 3-phase, 60 Hz, 8 pole induction motor is 2 Hz. Its speed of rotation will be
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Q40
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If applied voltage of a small 3-phase induction motor is reduced to half of its rated value, then the starting torque of the motor becomes
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Q41
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A small air-gap in a three-phase induction motor helps in
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Q42
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At full load, a transformer can have zero voltage regulation
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Q43
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A two-winding 200V/100V, 1.0 kVA transformer is reconnected as an auto-transformer of 100V/300V. What will be the rating of auto-transformer?
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Q44
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Which three-phase connection in a transformer will produce a phase-difference of 30° between its input and corresponding output line voltages?
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Q45
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A separately excited DC generator achieves maximum efficiency when terminal voltage is 220 V and induced EMF is 240 V. If the armature resistance is 0.25Ω, then what will be stray losses in the generator?
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Q46
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Consider following statements: Assertion: DC series motors are suitable for electric locomotives. Reason: DC series motors provide high starting torque. Of these statements:
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Q47
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The speed of a separately excited DC motor can be controlled by changing 1. Field current 2. Supply voltage 3. Armature resistance Select the correct option:
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Q48
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For the given code MOV A, #0C2H ADD A, #3DH The value of CY and AC flag bits is
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Q49
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Given the following statements:Statement 1:Assembly language is a high-level language.Statement 2:Assembler directives are not used by the CPU itself. They are simply a guide to the assembler.Choose the correct option for the above statements
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Q50
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A microcontroller normally has which of the following devices on-chip?
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Q51
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A ROM is a
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Q52
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A decade counter with a count of zero (0000) through nine (1001) is known as
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Q53
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The group of bits 10110101 is serially shifted (right-most bit first) into an 8-bit parallel output shift register with an initial state of 11100100. After two clock pulses, the register contains
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Q54
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Given the following statements:Statement 1:The modulus of an 8-bit Johnson counter is eight.Statement 2:A ring counter uses one flip-flop for each state in its sequence.Choose the correct option for the above statements
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Q55
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The output pulse width of a nonretriggerable one-shot depends on
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Q56
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For an edge-triggered D flip-flop,
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Q57
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The purpose of the clock input to a flip-flop is to
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